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Old 04-06-2005, 03:31 PM   #41
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mathetes
That passage in John is spurious,
Some of us would argue that virtually the entire bible is spurious. Nevertheless, I would like to see your source for why this particular passage can be so classified.

Thanks.
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Old 04-06-2005, 04:56 PM   #42
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Well, that's certainly one way of looking at it, another would be a question of whether or not getting married is righteous, as early Essene culture indicates that everyone in the commune were to abstain from sexual activity for purity reasons, so too can that be related to Christianity.
I thought Jesus wanted people to go unto the nations and preach the gospels. They were not intended to be a secluded sect, but a world religion. It is absurd to think that they should not be allowed to breed.
Only the weak-willed can marry and breed? That's a genetic engineering disaster!
If they took Paul's "infinite wisdom" to heart, there would be much less Christians here today. Most Christian conversions happen within their culture. Yes, there are missionaries, but if you look at a map, which shows the predominant religions, it is mostly "homegrowned." If Christians were not to reproduce and then become missionaries, then they convert others who cannot reproduce...Christianity would not "stick," as they would have to keep reinventing the wheel, so to speak, for every new generation. Not very efficient.
Early Christians thought they were the generation that Jesus would return. These were legitimate questions to ask, if one were to think this.


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Old 04-07-2005, 08:33 AM   #43
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Quote:
Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
Some of us would argue that virtually the entire bible is spurious. Nevertheless, I would like to see your source for why this particular passage can be so classified.

Thanks.
The point is that the acoount of the woman taken in adultery is almost certainly not part of the original text of John or any other of the canonical gospels but is a later interpolation maybe after 200 CE.

Almost all early texts of John omit it.

(It might possibly be something that actually happened during Jesus's ministry but it is almost certainly not part of the authentic text of the canonical gospels.)

Andrew Criddle
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Old 04-07-2005, 08:51 AM   #44
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Originally Posted by andrewcriddle

(It might possibly be something that actually happened during Jesus's ministry but it is almost certainly not part of the authentic text of the canonical gospels.)

Can you give me a specific reference to the "original" with this item missing from it?

Again, thanks.
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Old 04-07-2005, 10:13 AM   #45
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Quote:
Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
Can you give me a specific reference to the "original" with this item missing from it?

Again, thanks.
http://www-user.uni-bremen.de/~wie/TCG/TC-John-PA.pdf

Andrew Criddle
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Old 04-07-2005, 10:17 AM   #46
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As Andrew said, the first John manuscripts didn't include that passage, called "pericope de adulterae" in scholarship. The "original" did not have 7:53-8:11, in all probability.

You can read an introduction at the Wikipedia.
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Old 04-07-2005, 12:33 PM   #47
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Jesus did dictate the letters to the seven churches in Revelation.
2:1, 2:8, 2:12, 2:18, 3:1, 3:7, 3:14.

No, wait, that was a vision of Jesus. :huh:

Jake Jones
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Old 04-07-2005, 02:01 PM   #48
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Our wonderful and wise Lord Jesus Christ did write the Bible. As someone has already mentioned, He was God incarnate. As such, He was the author of the Bible (which includes the Old Testament). Why didn't he write while here on Earth? His mission was not to write but to preach. He was preaching the Word of our Heavenly Father. Being God incarnate, He knew the New Covenant would be written down by His appointed authors. Praise God for His wonderful ways.

In Christ's Love,

Barbara
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Old 04-07-2005, 03:37 PM   #49
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Quote:
Originally Posted by True Christian
Our wonderful and wise Lord Jesus Christ did write the Bible. As someone has already mentioned, He was God incarnate. As such, He was the author of the Bible (which includes the Old Testament). Why didn't he write while here on Earth? His mission was not to write but to preach. He was preaching the Word of our Heavenly Father. Being God incarnate, He knew the New Covenant would be written down by His appointed authors. Praise God for His wonderful ways.

In Christ's Love,

Barbara
Your Christian duckspeak gives me a doubleplusungood bellyfeel.
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Old 04-07-2005, 04:02 PM   #50
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Quote:
Originally Posted by True Christian
Our wonderful and wise Lord Jesus Christ did write the Bible. As someone has already mentioned, He was God incarnate. As such, He was the author of the Bible (which includes the Old Testament). Why didn't he write while here on Earth? His mission was not to write but to preach. He was preaching the Word of our Heavenly Father. Being God incarnate, He knew the New Covenant would be written down by His appointed authors. Praise God for His wonderful ways.

In Christ's Love,

Barbara
Does that include the Apocrypha then as well, since it's part of the oldest canon around?

May the force be with you...
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