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Old 11-15-2012, 12:25 PM   #1
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Default Thou shalt commit adultery - unstable negatives in the transmission of the Greek NT

In honor of Bible Week, Oxford Journals is offering free access to selected articles in their religion journals.

Oxford Journals

This includes: "‘THOU SHALT COMMIT ADULTERY’ (EXOD. 20:14, AV 1631): A FIRST SURVEY OF ALTERATION INVOLVING NEGATIVES IN THE TRANSMISSION OF THE GREEK NEW TESTAMENT AND OF EARLY CHURCH RESPONSES TO IT"

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Like many words in the New Testament, one-fifth of the 3,542 examples of the negative have suffered alteration, trivial or otherwise, through addition or omission or substitution. But the alteration of negatives is more provocative in that, given their function in logic, it can involve contradiction. The Church Fathers had to face questions where dogma was at stake: did Paul believe that ‘we all shall not sleep’ or ‘we all shall sleep’, ‘we all shall be changed’ or ‘we all shall not be changed’ (1 Cor. 15:51)? Did death reign even over those who had not sinned like Adam (Rom. 5:14)? The unstable negative was also noted in Jewish, classical, and legal circles. Analysis of over 700 examples may prove useful to textual critics, students of scribal habits, and philologists as well as to dogmaticians and historians.
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Old 11-15-2012, 01:04 PM   #2
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In honor of Bible Week, Oxford Journals is offering free access to selected articles in their religion journals.

Oxford Journals

This includes: "‘THOU SHALT COMMIT ADULTERY’ (EXOD. 20:14, AV 1631): A FIRST SURVEY OF ALTERATION INVOLVING NEGATIVES IN THE TRANSMISSION OF THE GREEK NEW TESTAMENT AND OF EARLY CHURCH RESPONSES TO IT"

Quote:
Like many words in the New Testament, one-fifth of the 3,542 examples of the negative have suffered alteration, trivial or otherwise, through addition or omission or substitution. But the alteration of negatives is more provocative in that, given their function in logic, it can involve contradiction. The Church Fathers had to face questions where dogma was at stake: did Paul believe that ‘we all shall not sleep’ or ‘we all shall sleep’, ‘we all shall be changed’ or ‘we all shall not be changed’ (1 Cor. 15:51)? Did death reign even over those who had not sinned like Adam (Rom. 5:14)? The unstable negative was also noted in Jewish, classical, and legal circles. Analysis of over 700 examples may prove useful to textual critics, students of scribal habits, and philologists as well as to dogmaticians and historians.
Thou shalt keep that piss-taker at arm's length. Who gives a damn what the Greek says?
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Old 11-15-2012, 02:00 PM   #3
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Originally Posted by Toto View Post
In honor of Bible Week, Oxford Journals is offering free access to selected articles in their religion journals.

Oxford Journals

This includes: "‘THOU SHALT COMMIT ADULTERY’ (EXOD. 20:14, AV 1631): A FIRST SURVEY OF ALTERATION INVOLVING NEGATIVES IN THE TRANSMISSION OF THE GREEK NEW TESTAMENT AND OF EARLY CHURCH RESPONSES TO IT"

Quote:
Like many words in the New Testament, one-fifth of the 3,542 examples of the negative have suffered alteration, trivial or otherwise, through addition or omission or substitution. But the alteration of negatives is more provocative in that, given their function in logic, it can involve contradiction. The Church Fathers had to face questions where dogma was at stake: did Paul believe that ‘we all shall not sleep’ or ‘we all shall sleep’, ‘we all shall be changed’ or ‘we all shall not be changed’ (1 Cor. 15:51)? Did death reign even over those who had not sinned like Adam (Rom. 5:14)? The unstable negative was also noted in Jewish, classical, and legal circles. Analysis of over 700 examples may prove useful to textual critics, students of scribal habits, and philologists as well as to dogmaticians and historians.
You have to watch out for perversion Toto, where in 1 Cor:15-51 Paul writes that "Not all of us shall fall asleep, but all of us are to be changed."

This is the same thing as saying that "some of us will be saved, but all of us have the need to be saved." (from the poetic NAB).

And in Romans 5 he is telling us that sin through Adam is ours 'with or without' the law of Moses simply because we all have our 'eyes opened' to see the difference between good and bad when we became rational beings now with a mind of our own . . . and so we are doomed to die because we remember that our parents died etc.

Significant here is that in our conscious mind we live beside our own self and therefore are doomed to because we also have 'intimations of immortality' in our own mind but cannot consciously penetrate that realm of life and so condemn ourself.

The purpose of the law was not to stop man from sinning but to convict him of sin so that in seeking pardon for the sins we do admit also the Adamis sin nature will be 'snared' simple because we cannot consciously confess that sin. And it is for this reason that Moses placed 'evil opposite to good.'
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Old 11-15-2012, 02:09 PM   #4
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.... Who gives a damn what the Greek says?
English - if it was good enough for Jesus, it's good enough for you?
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Old 11-15-2012, 02:12 PM   #5
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Originally Posted by Toto View Post
In honor of Bible Week, Oxford Journals is offering free access to selected articles in their religion journals.

Oxford Journals

This includes: "‘THOU SHALT COMMIT ADULTERY’ (EXOD. 20:14, AV 1631): A FIRST SURVEY OF ALTERATION INVOLVING NEGATIVES IN THE TRANSMISSION OF THE GREEK NEW TESTAMENT AND OF EARLY CHURCH RESPONSES TO IT"
Thou shalt keep that piss-taker at arm's length. Who gives a damn what the Greek says?

I'm sorry, please explain. I am baffled.:huh:
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Old 11-15-2012, 04:05 PM   #6
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sotto has got his own weird religion where no one known as a christian is really a christian.
-except maybe him, he has never been very clear on that particular point.

He doesn't give a damn what the Greek NT texts say because he has his own version which he makes up as he goes along.
Don't expect his explanations, if condescends to give you any more than his usual smart ass two or three word reply to questions, to make any sense.
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Old 11-15-2012, 04:33 PM   #7
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.... Who gives a damn what the Greek says?
English - if it was good enough for Jesus, it's good enough for you?
It's good enough to sort out true believers. To use KJV English while proposing discussion of textual criticism is a bit like senior Buddhist monks wondering why they believe in Buddhism. People who use that sort of English, only for the Bible, of course, are so terrified of Jesus that Greek texts are just a bit redundant!
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