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07-20-2009, 03:03 PM | #221 | ||
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Yes, I would like to see a thread in regards to the women of the ancient world, as effected by religion particularly. I have noticed that it is an issue that is not addressed on this sub-forum specifically ( Biblical Criticism & History), and is rather unfortunately left to be addressed rather ambigiously, and prejudicially in the GRD forum. Certainly, I am no historian nor scholar so I am not confident that I am the one to address the issue, though I sure have the fire when I have a mind to it. Sadly, there appears to be no female scholars on this site, with the interest to create such a topic, if there are any female scholars at all posting. Having said that, I am doing my research. If a thread of this issue is welcomed, understanding my limitations, I'll have a go at it. I would be grateful if other women on these forums participated. My postition is: If you do not know what to teach your son's and your daughters, someone else teaches them. Ask me, I know. I'll work up a thread, giving it my best shot, with no promises. It's that or start one yourself, and I'll participate. |
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07-20-2009, 03:11 PM | #222 | |
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The burial story as presented in gMatthew is fatally flawed. Jesus, if he was a Jew, would not have been buried on the Sabbath day.
Matthew 27:57-60 - Quote:
Jews do not bury their dead on the Sabbath. It should also be noted that Joseph started his quest for the body of Jesus on the Sabbath, and he would have to get permission from Pilate, get control of the body and then transport the body to his tomb. The Sabbath may have been over by then or well into the night of the Sabbath. And there is something that has been overlooked. What really happened between the 6th and 9th hour. It was dark as night. The disciples TOOK Jesus off the CROSS? |
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07-21-2009, 04:31 AM | #223 | ||
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Assuming Christians were 0% of the population in the 1st century, then it stands to reason that the number of people grew from the 1st to 4th centuries unless you can make a reasonable argument that the number did not grow and they suddenly appeared in the 4th. History seems to indacte otherwise. if my 4th century SWAG is close at all, then it trends in that direction and that is all that needs to be true to validate my statement. |
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07-21-2009, 04:41 AM | #224 | ||
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It seems to me evident that the Christians interrogated by Pliny and described by Tacitus worshipped a person that was put to death by Pontius Pilate. Resurrection is implied when you are worshipped post crucifixion. the number of christians grew and this belief in resurrection appears to be consistent. Paul clearly describes the same Jesus who was killed in public in Romans. I feel you are ignoring not a trial of bread crumbs but a pile of loaves of bread and I am sure you feel I am imagining them, perhaps we should just leave it there. No new documentation is going to pop up in this conversation. If what is there is not compelling to you, then it is not. ~Steve |
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07-21-2009, 06:40 AM | #225 |
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07-21-2009, 06:45 AM | #226 | |
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You're assuming your conclusion again. Nothing that Paul actually wrote even suggests that, let alone "clearly" says so. |
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07-21-2009, 09:03 AM | #227 | |
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It is not true at all that Tacitus claimed christians worshipped a person that was put to death by Pontius Pilate. There is no such thing in Annals 15.44. And further It is not even compulsory to worship a sect leader as a god. Based on Philo and Josephus, there is no indication that Jews would have worshipped a sect leader as a god. And it is equally false that Pliny mentioned that a person was put to death during the time of Pilate. There is no such thing. Now, based on Tertullian, Christ is not a name but added to a name. It is not known who was called Christ in the Pliny letters. In effect, there can be no assumption of resurrection in the Pliny letters or Tacitus Annals |
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07-21-2009, 10:30 AM | #228 |
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The forgery of Tacitus Annals 15.44
I have a question for every one. What is the first external attestation to the text of Annals 15.44 in Tacitus?
It is astounding when you think of it. Here we are discussing one of the major proof texts put forward for the existence of Jesus from pagan sources, oblivious to the fact it unknown before the 15th century! When Niccolo Niccoli died in 1437, a manuscript passed into the hands of the Medici (in the Laurentian library in Florence, where it is number 68.2) and all extant copies of the text in question--Annals 15.44--come from that one text. Where had it been, allegedly, for over thirteen centuries? We have a solitary manuscript from the eleventh century, the Second Medicean manuscript (M. II), presumably written at Monte Cassino. It is important to keep in mind this is a separate manuscript from Annals, 1-6, the "first Medicean" manuscript. It is likely that M.II was copied from a lost older manuscript, but even if that were true, there is no evidence that the text we read now in Annals 15.44 was in the older manuscript. If manuscripts containing the current text of Tacitus Annals 15:44 were in constant possesion of the Church from the earliest times to the present, then it is remarkable that it was never quoted and attributed to the famous Roman historian before the 15th century. Why didn't all these Proto-Popes and Archbishops that were supposed to have it in their possession never notice a word of it? Here is an "over the top" illustration: "Archbishop, Your Excellency! You know that guy Christ we are always praying to? Well, this document by Tacitus who was so important that we have spent the last 1,000 years copying his text, well he writes about HIM!! What? Don't tell a soul??? Why? In that case maybe I should just leave it out of my copy... Ouch! OK, I'll copy and keep my mouth shut (kisses ring)". So the suggestion here is that the current text of Annals 15.44 was inserted into the text of M. II when it was copied at Monte Cassino in the eleventh century. The redactor, being a devout Christian, would have paraphrased the text based on Sulpicius into the manuscript of Tacitus. The Abbot of Monte Cassino from 1058-1086, Desiderius, along with his friend Archbishop Alfano, oversaw the transcriptions of ancient documents at Monte Cristo became Pope (Blessed) Victor III in 1086. If the passage were authentic, why did he not mention it? No one could have overruled him. On the other hand, he or his successor was in the perfect position to have it inserted. How then, would the scholars detect the interpolation? But what inspired this redaction? The evidence is that the text of M.II originally read "Chrestianos" and then the scribe went back and corrected it to "Christianos." There was no "Chrestus" or "Christus" in Tacitus' original, just a mention of "Chrestians." The 11th century interpolator added the material about Christus, and then went back and changed the original "Chrestianos" (copied unchanged from the source document) to "Christianos" for consistency. Jake Jones IV |
07-21-2009, 11:42 AM | #229 | |
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Andrew Criddle |
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07-22-2009, 01:56 AM | #230 | |
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In case what appears to be obfuscation on your part is not intentional, here is the defintion I am using from dictionary.com -------------------------------------------- exponential growth [(ek-spuh-nen-shuhl)] Growth of a system in which the amount being added to the system is proportional to the amount already present: the bigger the system is, the greater the increase. (See geometric progression.) Note: In everyday speech, exponential growth means runaway expansion, such as in population growth. --------------------------------------------- Now that you realize the graph paper will not be necessary, perhaps you could just explain where the 'resurrection' Christians came from if not from the previous 'resurrection' Christians. |
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