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01-09-2008, 07:23 PM | #81 | ||
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Do you read Greek? If so, what words in the Greek text stand as the basis of the English expressions "transgression" and "of the law. Is the genitival construction above justified by the grammar of the Greek? Jeffrey |
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01-09-2008, 07:27 PM | #82 |
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Again, when are you going to rewrite us a new translation since all of the translations are not sufficient? Until then, your knowledge of Greek makes you read into things just a tad bit!
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01-09-2008, 07:35 PM | #83 | ||
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Jeffrey,
I made no claim according your specifications below. Perhaps you have misinterpretted this: Quote:
the Essenes and the Therapeutae. I have listed the sources. I agree that Philo does not mention Asclepius. Where do you think I have claimed otherwise? My claim is that Philo writes on the ascetics. Best wishes, Pete Brown Quote:
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01-09-2008, 07:36 PM | #84 | |
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Jeffrey |
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01-09-2008, 07:38 PM | #85 | ||
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01-09-2008, 08:18 PM | #86 | |
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I would not buy a used chariot off Eusebius let alone trust the "happy coincidence" by which Constantine bound together the texts of the nation of the Jews and the nation of the "early christians". The temptation story has a precedent with the story of Buddha and Mara (The Devil) totally outside the Jewish tradition. The fact of the matter is that we have the gospel authors claiming Jesus is not only healing people, hand over foot, but also instructing the disciples in how to heal some of the difficult illnesses, etc. By fasting. What sort of a practice is fasting? Well its an ascetic practice. Jesus was the new Healer God, designed to surplant the existing Healing God Ascelpius, whom has ample archaeological evidence. Best wishes, Pete Brown |
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01-09-2008, 08:36 PM | #87 | ||
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And BTW, even if there was some reason -- which Peter notably does not supply -- to suspect an actual dependence of the story of Jesus wilderness testing on the stories of Gautama's encounter with Mara, Mara is not the Devil in Buddhist thought, let alone the Satan of Job and intertestamental Judaism, the son of God who is divinely appointed to be the one who tests the (covenant) faithfulness of Israelites. Jeffrey |
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01-09-2008, 10:13 PM | #88 |
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In the context of the Gospels, it is a Jewish practice being taught by a man who explicitly denies being an ascetic like John. Continually ignoring that fact does not help your credibility at all. :banghead:
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01-09-2008, 10:30 PM | #89 | |
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Since when does eating (because you're hungry) and drinking (because you're thirsty or want something to drink with your food) equal "lush?" :huh: It's amazing how you twisted that to your own benefit, Toto. But shouldn't you instead be more concerned with the real truth, rather than the "truth" you want for yourself? |
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01-09-2008, 11:09 PM | #90 | ||
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of the gospels, which were written in an unknown century yet to be determined, the authors may or may not have been Jewish. Does anyone know? Also we know there were Hellenised Jews such as Philo, and entire groups called Essenes (who are described as Pythagorean) who were "Hellenised". So the people who wrote the gospels are not necessarily the ones reported by the gospels to have been resident in Judea c.30 CE. You of course seem to make this assumption. We have a story in text form. Nothing more. It asserts Jesus to have practiced fasting for a number of reasons, including the ability to perform healings. There is no difference between a Jewish fast or a Hellenic or an Indian fast with respect to the ascetic practice. It was ancient currency. And its practitioners were respected. Here is some more from the WIKI page quoted earlier by Toto ..... Quote:
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