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Old 11-18-2010, 10:42 PM   #81
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Jesus is described in all four gospels as an itinerant preacher. To be sure by the time the gospels were written the picture of the itinerant preacher had been embellished with aggrandizing details, but under those details there is still an itinerant preacher. Does your agenda prevent you from recognizing this as fact.
An itinerant has no permanent home. That is not what the gospels describe. They describe him as purposefully traveling to a few key places for specific reasons - not as a vagabond panhandling his way around Galilee.

Mark 1 tells us that Jesus starts off in Nazareth - specifically referred to as his home town -and then goes to Galilee because of the imprisonment of John. After that, he goes to Capernaum where his buddies Simon and Andrew live. He travels around nearby a bit to perform some mircales, and then in Mark 2, he returns to Capernaum. He then stays in Capernaum for all of Mark 3 and 4, and finally crosses the lake to the region of Garasenes for the purpose of making a bunch of pigs commit suicide, and returns again to Capernaum, and then in Mark 6 returns to Nazareth.

Jesus then went around teaching in villages near Nazareth, and Mark 6 begins again talking about the lake area of Capernaum. There are a few other locations mentioned after that where Jesus went for the purpose of performing miracles.

This is not an itinerant preacher. It's a man with a home town who also likes to hang out at his friend's house in Capernaum...and they go off to perform miracles from time to time. But he definitely has a home in Nazareth, and his buds Simon and Andrew have a home in Capernaum where they all like to chill.
Great point! A point that surely needs to be repeated and repeated and repeated....A nobody itinerant preacher is a great way out of the HJ problems - a nobody that is impossible to question unless the very premise itself is questioned. A nobody itinerant preacher that was so charismatic that some people were moved to drop everything and follow him. And what would we call such a nobody itinerant preacher and such followers today? Seems to me that some double standards are in play here. Do we really want to think that people back there were so dumb? And they were just lucky to have hit the jackpot of 'truth'? And what would that actually mean - that now we must go and follow any nobody who sings a new tune - just in case we miss out when the roll call for heaven is read out.....

Methinks it's really about time that we gave those early Jewish Christians the benefit of the doubt - that they were not dumb and stupid but were intellectuals who knew very well what they were about - interpreting, evaluating, Jewish history as 'salvation' history - and then retelling the 'salvation' interpretation as pseudo-history.

The pseudo historical storyline re a supposedly itinerant preacher, former carpenter or stonemason - is a story attempting to draw comparisons between the artisans that were needed for building the literal temple and those needed for building the new spiritual temple. ( metaphorically speaking).


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I say they are untrue because the entire gospel is concocted. But if you start with the assumption that the gospels contain actual history about a man Jesus of Nazareth, then there is no longer any valid reason to reject the interactions with Pilate. It was commonplace for men of status to receive the special type of treatment that Jesus is depicted as receiving.

In addition to his special treatment by Pilate, Jesus is also described as authoritatively walking into synagogues and teaching. Do you think a nobody could get away with that?

Further, several of the places Jesus goes, the people already know him and crowds seem to recognize him by sight. Does that sound like a nobody?

Jesus walks up to people out of the blue and says "follow me", and they do. Does that sound like a nobody?

What is your basis for the presumption that Jesus was not a man of status - consistent with his treatment by Pilate, consistent with his ability to simply walk into synagogues as he saw fit and start preaching, consistent with his ability to live a life of leisure doing nothing but occasionally preaching, and consistent with his crowd recognition?
A nobody - no-way.......
Of course, the gospel Jesus figure is a nobody in the sense that this figure is not historical. However, there are elements in the storyline that do suggest that a historical figure has been used, seen as significant, seen as relevant - and that this historical figure was most certainty not a nobody...

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I tend to agree with Crossan who says based on his knowledge of Roman History that it is more likely that Jesus was crucified on the orders of a rather low level military official than that Pilate took a hand in the matter.
What is Crossan's basis for believing Jesus was not a person of status?
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Old 11-18-2010, 11:07 PM   #82
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Great point! A point that surely needs to be repeated and repeated and repeated....A nobody itinerant preacher is a great way out of the HJ problems - a nobody that is impossible to question unless the very premise itself is questioned....
A nobody does not help HJ at all. You cannot have a WELL-KNOWN Jewish MESSIAH and also an OBSCURE nobody.

HJ needs historical evidence so if HJ was an obscure itinerant preacher then HJ cannot be Jesus in "Antiquities of the Jews" who did TEN thousand wonderful things and was called the Messiah.

Antquities of the Jews 18.3.3
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3. Now there was about this time Jesus, a wise man, if it be lawful to call him a man; for he was a doer of wonderful works, a teacher of such men as receive the truth with pleasure.

He drew over to him both many of the Jews and many of the Gentiles. He was [the] Christ.

And when Pilate, at the suggestion of the principal men amongst us, had condemned him to the cross, (9) those that loved him at the first did not forsake him; for he appeared to them alive again the third day; (10) as the divine prophets had foretold these and ten thousand other wonderful things concerning him...
An itinerant preacher is BIG problems for HJ.
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Old 11-18-2010, 11:22 PM   #83
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and then in Mark 6 returns to Nazareth.
Actually, that's not what the text says. He goes to his πατρις, literally "fatherland". No location is given. It is just as anonymous as it has ever been. The Matthew writer saw no reason to elucidate, using the same word as Mark. The Lucan writer with the need to resolve the town issue identifies it as Nazara, while referring back to events in Capernaum, after which the whole passage is relocated to before the initial Capernaum incident, removing any claim that the town had.

In short, no Jesus doesn't return to Nazareth in Mk 6. That's just eisegesis, ancient eisegesis mind you, but still eisegesis.

Nazareth is not in the Q material, ie that shared between Matt & Luke but not found in Mark. And it is unlikely in Mark (1:9), for Matthew doesn't support the one instance of the name, so Nazareth isn't original to the story.

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But he definitely has a home in Nazareth
And he definitely smokes Chesterfields.


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Old 11-18-2010, 11:36 PM   #84
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and then in Mark 6 returns to Nazareth.
Actually, that's not what the text says. He goes to his πατρις, literally "fatherland". No location is given.

"fatherland" - very interesting! Now that really casts the net far and wide.....

A "fatherland" outside of Galilee - now that could really set the cat among the pigeons......

spin - oh, what have you done..... :devil:
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Old 11-19-2010, 12:06 AM   #85
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Jesus is described in all four gospels as an itinerant preacher.
Yes, that is what the gospels say about him. But the gospels are not the only documents from that period that mention him.

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To be sure by the time the gospels were written the picture of the itinerant preacher had been embellished with aggrandizing details, but under those details there is still an itinerant preacher.
That is one possibility. References to Jesus in documents other than the gospels raise other possibilities.

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Does your agenda prevent you from recognizing this as fact.
No, but my agenda tries to prevent me from assuming my conclusion when analyzing evidence.
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Old 11-19-2010, 12:30 AM   #86
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There is always in historical studies a trade-off between the risk of error and the certainty of silence.

However in modern history one can use strong criteria in order to exclude possibly erroneous, (biased mistaken etc), sources and still be left with a great deal of interesting and reliable information.

One can't do ancient history (in general) like that. Using these criteria would exclude lots of true information (because it was not definitely reliable) and little would be left.
Then, at the very least, we shouldn't shy away from saying that the conclusions of most if not all Ancient History are very tenuous compared to those of modern History. If the standard is that much lower. I think often, especially in the popular conception, that is not taken into account. We should be really open about it. I really do get the impression that the 'man on the street' thinks we know a lot more about the Ancient World than we actually do.

I think this remark is problematic though:-

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Using these criteria would exclude lots of true information (because it was not definitely reliable) and little would be left.
Surely the very point at issue is whether the information is true in the first place. You cannot in one breath say the criteria would exclude true information and then say that that the information, that you're saying is true, is not definitely reliable. If it is not definitely reliable (or worse, if it is very possibly not reliable) then you cannot be that confident in saying that it is true... it may be, it may not. That is the whole point of having criteria in the first place.
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Old 11-19-2010, 01:20 AM   #87
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Actually, that's not what the text says. He goes to his πατρις, literally "fatherland". No location is given.
"fatherland" - very interesting! Now that really casts the net far and wide.....

A "fatherland" outside of Galilee - now that could really set the cat among the pigeons......

spin - oh, what have you done..... :devil:
Hopefully, my comment is clear: Mark doesn't say in chapter six that the home town is Nazareth. The text just gives a generic term, "πατρις", literally "fatherland" and usually translated as "hometown", though that is more specific than the text.


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Old 11-19-2010, 02:10 AM   #88
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"fatherland" - very interesting! Now that really casts the net far and wide.....

A "fatherland" outside of Galilee - now that could really set the cat among the pigeons......

spin - oh, what have you done..... :devil:
Hopefully, my comment is clear: Mark doesn't say in chapter six that the home town is Nazareth. The text just gives a generic term, "πατρις", literally "fatherland" and usually translated as "hometown", though that is more specific than the text.


spin
Sure, the translation you make is clear - it's the implications that are not so clear....

If the Greek word has more inherent meaning than simply being able to be translated as 'hometown' - then in the context of Mark ch.6 - what town is mentioned that is outside of Galilee, a town that could more meaningfully, in the context, reflect a "fatherland"? Bethsaida. A town, already at that time, renamed as Bethsaida Julius. A town/village from which some early disciples came.

(no sense in the storyline saying that Jesus is going to his 'fatherland' if he is already physically in that 'fatherland' - probably why translators would go for the 'hometown' translation. Thereby adding confusion re Nazareth - and minimizing any relevance to Bethsaida.)
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Old 11-19-2010, 02:24 AM   #89
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Hopefully, my comment is clear: Mark doesn't say in chapter six that the home town is Nazareth. The text just gives a generic term, "πατρις", literally "fatherland" and usually translated as "hometown", though that is more specific than the text.
Sure, the translation you make is clear
Gauging by this reaction I'm not assured.

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- it's the implications that are not so clear....

If the Greek word has more inherent meaning than simply being able to be translated as 'hometown' - then in the context of Mark ch.6 - what town is mentioned that is outside of Galilee, a town that could more meaningfully, in the context, reflect a "fatherland"? Bethsaida. A town, already at that time, renamed as Bethsaida Julius. A town/village from which some early disciples came.

(no sense in the storyline saying that Jesus is going to his 'fatherland' if he is already physically in that 'fatherland' - probably why translators would go for the 'hometown' translation. Thereby adding confusion re Nazareth - and minimizing any relevance to Bethsaida.)
Try something like "home soil", "zone of birth". The meaning of "πατρις" does allow you to go interstate.


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Old 11-19-2010, 02:51 AM   #90
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Sure, the translation you make is clear
Gauging by this reaction I'm not assured.

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- it's the implications that are not so clear....

If the Greek word has more inherent meaning than simply being able to be translated as 'hometown' - then in the context of Mark ch.6 - what town is mentioned that is outside of Galilee, a town that could more meaningfully, in the context, reflect a "fatherland"? Bethsaida. A town, already at that time, renamed as Bethsaida Julius. A town/village from which some early disciples came.

(no sense in the storyline saying that Jesus is going to his 'fatherland' if he is already physically in that 'fatherland' - probably why translators would go for the 'hometown' translation. Thereby adding confusion re Nazareth - and minimizing any relevance to Bethsaida.)
Try something like "home soil", "zone of birth". The meaning of "πατρις" does allow you to go interstate.


spin
And out into the cross border areas - which by all accounts the gospel Jesus storyline has him going to and fro....Come on spin - you have just proposed a splendid way to get out of the Nazareth cul-de-sac - don't now short-change the implications of 'fatherland'. It's not 'motherland' or 'homeland' - it's 'fatherland' - with all the notions of national identity that word can carry. Galilee is for the gospel storyline - if it's history we are after we need to spread the net away from its borders...
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