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Old 10-03-2005, 02:11 PM   #291
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Originally Posted by Pilate
Matthew here was explaining the name Golgothas. He was not making a grammatical comment.
I asked for you to parse the phrase in Mk. You remember, ton golgoQan topon: how does it hang together, to what is the ton attached? I've shown how Mt reworded the phrase and Mt has signs of often correcting Mk. Why is this case different, ie Mk was once again wrong?

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Originally Posted by Pilate
If you don't know the difference between a Greek noun and a hole in the ground what makes you think you can give brownie points.
Colourful, but no content.

You were responding to my statement that appeals to authority and not their evidence is meaningless. I gather you have no tangible response.

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Originally Posted by Pilate
The audience is tired listening to your rehashing of old points.
I think they may be tired of your contentless posts and exaggerated use of font size. They probably would like you to answer things for a change and with evidence rather than other people's opinions.

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Say something new, so we can learn from your blunders and have a good time.
I'm always happy to be able to give anyone useful information. We need as much as we can get.

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I'm glad you liked the smilie. I found it ummm, hysterical.


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Old 10-03-2005, 02:21 PM   #292
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Cool The old gramophon is stuck again!

I told you folks, you need me around here to get "a second opinion." You want to compare opinions? Look in the previous postings how differently from me edit answered the questions of cass. (You will miss my point of view, when I get finally tired of this "scorn and bash" system of yours, or when you throw me out. Whichever comes first.)
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Originally Posted by spin
As I have pointed out earlier Josephus uses it to mean Hebrew as we know the term, in contrast to suristi the ancient word for Aramaic.spin
He cannot read Greek, and Josephus wrote those statements in Greek. Folks, don't let the nurse perform surgery on your brain. Go to a doctor. Spin stick to what you know. Spino, havlas Espaniol? Esta es una comodia Pilateestee. Comprende amigo? No tengo hora por appeliar con sus gauchos. Qiero un taco!!! Por favor! Tira su dictionario Griego en la basura. Tu no puede explicar, lo que tu no comprende.
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Old 10-03-2005, 02:33 PM   #293
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Originally Posted by Pilate
Everything in the Odessy and Illiad is not true.
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Old 10-03-2005, 02:55 PM   #294
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Originally Posted by Pilate
(I like to help. I will try to give some quick answers. I cannot expand.)
There is no motive for Christians to make such a claim. What are they going to gain?
I have tried to reason it, but must be missing something in their thinking.

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Here is the point: The Jewish Christians did not use the Septuagint, and they used the Hebrew Old Testament and their gospel probably had quotations from the Hebrew bible.
Was the Septuagint ever translated into English and compared? I was wondering if the writer of the letter called "Hebrew" was using a different text when quoting the OT. I wasn't sure if the writer was purposefully twisting the OT quote, or if the Septuagint read differently.


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The Jewish Christians did not write the New Testament (it was writen for a non-Palestianian, non Aramaic speaking audience). The Aramaisms in the gospels are one of several indications that the Jewish Christians spoke Aramaic.
Whereas the Hellenist Jews, the first Hellenist Christians, primarily spoke Greek and they wrote at least part of the New Testament (Gentile Christians, the later Hellenist Christians, wrote the rest). This is important in understaning the evolution of Christianity.
This may be a stupid question, but..
What language did the Romans and Jews use with each other? I haven't spent a lot of time considering the factor of a difference in language. A big deal is made about the fact that Yeshau didn't speak much during his trial. to fulfill an OT prophecy. Maybe he just was not fluent in the language of the court.

If Mexico took over Texas, and I was arrested there, i'd be able to ask where the bathroom is, and what John's mother was cooking in the kitchen.


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Because Christianity is essentially a Greek religion.
1. Christianity was written in Greek, because it was the relgion of those who spoke Greek.
2. Judaism was written in Hebrew, because, at the time it was originally written, it was the rilgion of those who spoke Hebrew
. That is another reason I have a difficulty with Christianity as a religion. Where are the letters the Jewish followers, the Apostles, wrote?? Paul makes a big deal over his being the one sent to the gentiles and the Apostles to the Jews. They found a gospel of Thomas where James/jacob was to be the leader. I find it hard to believe nothing was written to the Jewish followers that could be included in the NT, other than the letter called james that seems to directly contradict Paul.


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The Gospel of John was written for Greek audience, outside Palestine, for this reason the author made certain clrifications.
The writter(s) of the gospel of John, was not a disciple of Jesus, or a Jewish Christian. If he was, he would have written in Aramaic.
or, at least had someone write it for him in Aramaic.
Jesus said he came for none but the lost sheep of Israel.
i don't buy the add on to the end of Matthew. They would not have thrown out circumcision or the sabbath for the gentiles, when the law was clear that a stranger had to be circumcised to partake of the Passover. They would not have jesus as a passover lamb and then throw out the rules and requirements.

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The KJV translated correctly "Hebrew tongue" but did not give a footnote explaining which was that tongue. The editors of NIV ans NIRV made their translations to include the explanation: Aramaic. They could have put a footnote, but they prefer to "spoonfeed" their readers.
with all the errors in the bible, i have to say that there is no reason to believe john is without flaw. Do you know what the difference in lettering the hebrew would take for Gulgoleth to be transliterated into greek? or would that just be a guessing game? With a copy of the Septuaging you probably look up a word where skull is used in the OT. At this point I am not sure I wan't to know.

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Just because everything written inf the New Testament is not true, that does not render the whole book as a lie. Everything in the Odessy and Illiad is not true. But historians and archaeologists (Shliman) base on those writings have found relics (such as Troy) and other things.
Liers do not lie all the time. They lie intermitently.
Detectives in murder trials do not throw out everything a suspect says as a lie. They use corroborative evidence, make cross referreces, and comparisons to extract the truth.
There value of doing the investigative work (many in the Jesus Seminar have done so- and I recommend all of you to look into their findings) is of tremendous benefit to the world.
There is probably just enough truth to make it dangerous. It is no wonder they say family should never talk Politics or Religion. Everyone has a completely different idea of what the truth is. I know so little, and the people who believe everything they read know even less.

I was going to edit something, but now I can't remember where it was. oh well..
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Old 10-03-2005, 03:38 PM   #295
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Originally Posted by spin
That's what we've got.


You cannot go from an unprovenanced text and create the characters in it and its internal literary.
Well, lets just say that the problem I have is what I had been taught about who John was doesn't mesh. the profile doesn't fit..

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The Greek term means language of the Hebrews/the Hebrew language -- that which is spoken by the Hebrews, tongue is a translator's word. As I have pointed out earlier Josephus uses it to mean Hebrew as we know the term, in contrast to suristi the ancient word for Aramaic.
but... that does not necessarily mean John meant what Josephus did. josephus is supposed to have known Hebrew. We can't say that for the author of john, because we don't know who he is. His idea of the language of the hebrews could have been the language he heard them speak, which could have been... well, i won't say it..

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Yeshua? The Greek text has Ihsous, which has already been transmogrified into Jesus, which is really a good Latin transliteration of the Greek. Shame English has lost the one-letter-one-sound orthography mostly employed in writing systems based on the alphabetic tradition.
I didn't realize he was actually Greek. See why this stuff is so confusing? You did say on that other short lived thread that if he lived he'd have probably spoken Aramaic. Don't know what his Momma named him, but I'd guess it wasn't Greek. A lot of Hebrew names were used abck then, no?
Well, lets just say, if he DID come back, as Christians expect, when the throng ran at him crying Jesus! jesus! jesus!, he would have no clue what they were calling, and probably take off in his cloud mobile. . :huh: If a Mexican american tells me his name is Jose', I don't call him Joseph, or joe.
I'm back and forth with Jesus, because if I want to think he existed, I wouldn't be calling him "Jesus" just because Greek speakers wrote about him.
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Naaa. Texts are texts. Treat this like one and you'll be safe.


spin
Well, that is a hard thing to do 100%.

My shift keys do not work consistantly on this keyboard. I try to go back and change to caps when I notice it, but for now i'll just give my apology to anyone who is driven crazy reading it. it is that, or throw my keyboard off the porch!
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Old 10-03-2005, 03:56 PM   #296
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Originally Posted by spin
But would you say he didn't know that the term "Hebrew" meant when he distinguishes it from Syrian (=Aramaic)?
Not if I knew for sure that he was a Hebrew speaking, Hebrew man. Take that out of the picture (john), and i would take that he meant the popular language used by the Hebrews. Actually, If I had never seen Hebrew people called Hebrews, then i would take it for granted Hebrew meant Hebrew, and think it strange that they would mention tongue. it should be self explanitory. but, I ain't no scholar.

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You can judge some of what he didn't write when you consider 1) he claimed to be a devout Jew and proud of his Jewish heritage, 2) did not use "christos" in any of the places found in the LXX and 3) if he believed in the notion current in Palestine, he wouldn't have used the term "christos" unexplained regarding a walk on part in his histories.


spin
Paul was a proud Jew too. I wonder if they ever met? (We are just 2 different. I just can't help speculating.)

Was Josephus proud as a Roman, that you know of?
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Old 10-03-2005, 03:59 PM   #297
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Originally Posted by cass256
but... that does not necessarily mean John meant what Josephus did. josephus is supposed to have known Hebrew.
But then when we talk about Hebrew you mightn't mean the same as me. Is this a useful comment as well?

Quote:
Originally Posted by cass256
We can't say that for the author of john, because we don't know who he is. His idea of the language of the hebrews could have been the language he heard them speak, which could have been... well, i won't say it..
We don't know if the writer knew either language. He just mentions Hebrew. How do you get beyond that?

Quote:
Originally Posted by cass256
I didn't realize he was actually Greek.
We are working with a literary text. You shouldn't reify the characters. The name given in the text for the character is Ihsous. Why go beyond the text without evidence to do so?

Quote:
Originally Posted by cass256
See why this stuff is so confusing?
If you stick with what you can show, there's no confusion. There are just a lot of unknowns.

Quote:
Originally Posted by cass256
You did say on that other short lived thread that if he lived he'd have probably spoken Aramaic. Don't know what his Momma named him, but I'd guess it wasn't Greek. A lot of Hebrew names were used abck then, no?
Lived in Galilee and IIRC I said either Aramaic or Greek.

Quote:
Originally Posted by cass256
Well, lets just say, if he DID come back, as Christians expect, when the throng ran at him crying Jesus! jesus! jesus!, he would have no clue what they were calling, and probably take off in his cloud mobile. . :huh: If a Mexican american tells me his name is Jose', I don't call him Joseph, or joe.
I'm back and forth with Jesus, because if I want to think he existed, I wouldn't be calling him "Jesus" just because Greek speakers wrote about him.
All very interesting, but all in never-never-land, because it is all beyond the available evidence.

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Originally Posted by cass256
Well, that is a hard thing to do 100%.
Sigh. That's the task before you.


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Old 10-03-2005, 04:00 PM   #298
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Originally Posted by spin
Spin you do not even know what the evidence for an John being written in Aramaic is.
How could you possibly have open-mindedly exaimined it.

It might make you uncomfortable , but the truth is you have formed your opinion before you have examined the evidence.

Kinda like "creation science"
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Old 10-03-2005, 04:03 PM   #299
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Originally Posted by cass256
Not if I knew for sure that he was a Hebrew speaking, Hebrew man. Take that out of the picture,
Why should you? Why remove relevant evidence?

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Originally Posted by cass256
Paul was a proud Jew too. I wonder if they ever met? (We are just 2 different. I just can't help speculating.)
There's no problem with speculation, but speculation that can go nowhere, isn't helpful in a situation like ours here on the forum, as it can bear no fruit. It's like the cursed olive tree here.

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Originally Posted by cass256
Was Josephus proud as a Roman, that you know of?
What does the question mean exactly?


spin
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Old 10-03-2005, 04:30 PM   #300
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Originally Posted by judge
Spin you do not even know what the evidence for an John being written in Aramaic is.
How could you possibly have open-mindedly exaimined it.

It might make you uncomfortable , but the truth is you have formed your opinion before you have examined the evidence.

Kinda like "creation science"
Can you cite an example of "Logos" being used in Aramaic? I don't necessarily mean the literal Greek word, I mean can you cite any Aramaic example of "the word" being used in any manner which is similar or analogous to the Philonic use of logos (which Philo himself took from Greek philosophy).

John's use of logos is so fundamentally Greek and Alexandrian that it would seem to put to bed any question of Aramaic origin for GJohn starting with very first line.
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