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Old 06-11-2010, 09:25 PM   #11
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"Against Marcion" by "Tertullian" is work of fiction.

When one examines a book called "On the Flesh of Christ" by the very supposed "Tertullian" it becomes even more obvious that it was most unlikely that Marcion needed gLuke or the Pauline writings.

"Tertullian" would claim Macion denied the FLESH and NATIVITY of JESUS.
"On the Flesh of Christ"
Quote:
......Let us examine our Lord's bodily substance, for about His spiritual nature all are agreed.

It is His flesh that is in question.

Its verity and quality are the points in dispute.

Did it ever exist?

Whence was it derived?

And of what kind was it?

If we succeed in demonstrating it, we shall lay down a law for our own resurrection.

Marcion, in order that he might deny the flesh of Christ, denied also His nativity, or else he denied His flesh in order that he might deny His nativity because, of course, he was afraid that His nativity and His flesh bore mutual testimony to each other's reality, since there is no nativity without flesh, and no flesh without nativity.
And now examine "First Apology" LVIII by Justin Martyr.

Quote:
CHAPTER LVIII

And, as we said before, the devils put forward Marcion of Pontus, who is even now teaching men to deny that God is the maker of all things in heaven and on earth, and that the Christ predicted by the prophets is His Son, and preaches another god besides the Creator of all, and likewise another son...
So Marcion does NOT even need Hebrew Scripture, he does not need Genesis, he does not need the God of the Jews. Marcion therefore does not the so-called prophecies about the Nativity of Jesus, Marcion's Christ was NOT born of a Virgin or Woman as found in IsAIAH 7.14.

All the so-called prophecies from conception to resurrection in Hebrew Scripture are NOT applicable to Marcion's Christ.

1. Marcion did NOT need the Hebrew Scripture. His God was not of the Jews.

2. Marcion did NOT need the so-called prophecies in Hebrew Scripture.

3. Marcion did NOT need Isaiah 7.14.

4. Marcion's Christ had NO FLESH.

5. Marcion's Christ had NO BLOOD.

6. Marcion's Christ had NO BODY.

It is obvious that Marcion did NOT need gLuke or the Pauline writings.

But there is one other problem.

Justin Martyr's writings tend to suggest that neither gLuke nor the Pauline writings did exist up to the time Justin wrote.

All claims that Marcion used gLuke and the Pauline writings appear to be false by "Tertullian".

It would appear gLuke and the Pauline writings did NOT even exist in the middle of the 2nd century or up to the time Justin wrote.

"Against Marcion" by "Tertullian" is a work of fiction
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Old 06-12-2010, 03:42 PM   #12
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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
"Tertullian" would claim Macion denied the FLESH and NATIVITY of JESUS.
"On the Flesh of Christ"
Quote:
......Let us examine our Lord's bodily substance, for about His spiritual nature all are agreed.

It is His flesh that is in question.

Its verity and quality are the points in dispute.

Did it ever exist?

Whence was it derived?

And of what kind was it?

If we succeed in demonstrating it, we shall lay down a law for our own resurrection.

Marcion, in order that he might deny the flesh of Christ, denied also His nativity, or else he denied His flesh in order that he might deny His nativity because, of course, he was afraid that His nativity and His flesh bore mutual testimony to each other's reality, since there is no nativity without flesh, and no flesh without nativity.

Marcion is refering to the historicity or the history of Jesus.
But Marcion too, is just another Eusebian mouthpiece.
The books of the new testament are a fiction of men.
Their wickedness is that they are a fabrication of influential men
passed off to the plain and simple uneducated classes as historically true.
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Old 06-12-2010, 04:56 PM   #13
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"Tertullian" would claim Macion denied the FLESH and NATIVITY of JESUS.
"On the Flesh of Christ"

Marcion is refering to the historicity or the history of Jesus.
But Marcion too, is just another Eusebian mouthpiece.
The books of the new testament are a fiction of men.
Their wickedness is that they are a fabrication of influential men
passed off to the plain and simple uneducated classes as historically true.

Marcion was most unlikely to be a mouthpiece of the Church. Marcion's Christ was not from the God of the Church and was not born of a Virgin.

It must be noted that the NT as Canonised was not the mouthpeice of Macion and Marcion's Christ was NOT likely to have been named Jesus.

Marcion's Christ was not a product of Isaiah 7.14 or the so-called prophecies in Hebrew Scripture.

There were no angels to tell Mary or any woman of the name of Marcion's Christ at birth.

Marcion's Christ was NOT the offspring of a Ghost of God and Mary.

Now, it is not my view presently that ALL the so-called Church writings were manipulated by the Church.

For example, It is my view that "Ad Nationes" by "Tertullian" was not likely to be manipulated but "Against Marcion" and "First Apology" supposedly by "Terullian" were likely to be written or manipulated wholly or in part by the Church or Constantine's apostles.
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Old 06-12-2010, 07:11 PM   #14
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Now, it is not my view presently that ALL the so-called Church writings were manipulated by the Church.
Even when the entire technological state of the pre-Nicaean literature of the Greek civilisation was in the supreme and absolute control of the church? ...... And that we have statements made by Constantine such as ....
"Our people have compared the chronologies with great accuracy,
and the 'age' of the Sibyl's verses excludes the view
that they are a post-christian fake."


- Constantine's Oration, Antioch, 325 CE,
- to the (captive and non-christian) Saints
Sorry to disagree with you on this issue aa5874, but I think that the rise of "Christian Origins" is satisfactorily explained by an imperial perversion of the literature of the Greek civilisation, which was subsequently lost to the world for a thousand years, and only remained in the world because it sought refuge outside the perverted and Christian-controlled Roman empire.
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Old 06-12-2010, 10:12 PM   #15
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Now, it is not my view presently that ALL the so-called Church writings were manipulated by the Church.
Even when the entire technological state of the pre-Nicaean literature of the Greek civilisation was in the supreme and absolute control of the church? ......
Perhaps I should have said that I am presently of the view that NOT all of the so-called Church writings that I have read were manipulated by the Church.

It is rather simple to find out what the Church invented.

For example, Eusebius is claimed to have written Church History and this writer claimed Acts of the Apostles and all the writings under the name Paul were authentic.

Without Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline writings Eusebius essentially had no history.

Eusebius NEEDED Acts and the Pauline Epistles.

Acts and the Pauline Epistles MUST be authentic for Church History to be regarded as credible.

Now, just look for all the Church writings that made the very same or similar claim that Acts of the Apostles and/ or all the writings under the name Paul were authentic.

Eusebius in Church History claimed Matthew, Mark, Luke and John wrote Gospels. Just look for all the Church writers who made similar claims.

You wont find that Justin Martyr, Theophilus of Antioch, and Athenagoras made any of those claims.
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Old 06-13-2010, 03:12 AM   #16
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Old 06-05-2012, 11:04 AM   #17
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How could any scholar with integrity possibly accept the interpretations of propaganda texts in a supposed two sided debate where the reader or audience is never afforded the slightest ability to form an independent opinion based on both sets of available information?!
All a writer named Tertullian does is provide pre-digested interpretation, expecting the reader to take his word for it, which they invariably do in accepting the claims about the bogeyman named Marcion.

But some folks will hang on to the second century scenario at all costs. Even the fanciful imaginings of an unknown writer who is identified as second century Tertullian.
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