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Old 04-10-2011, 09:58 PM   #161
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Aha!

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Miles Coverdale Bible (1535)

Book of Leviticus 23:5 - Upon ye fourtene daye of ye first moneth at euen, is the LORDES Easter.
And my translation is vindicated!
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Old 04-10-2011, 10:02 PM   #162
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Moving on, Please, provide your best rendition of Matthew 24:30 and any accompanying comments.
You don't need to keep this up, ie asking for individual verses to be translated when all you have to do is check it yourself, just by inserting the desired verse: http://www.commonenglishbible.com/Explore/PassageLookup/tabid/210/Default.aspx?txtPassageLookupMini=Matt%2024.30.

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Matteusarguðspjall 26 ... or 12:40 ...
This seems like a vain fishing expedition. You are not dealing with the issues you are supposed to, ie working towards an understanding of the significance of "son of man" as translated from both Hebrew and Greek and how the Hebrew and christian uses may or may not differ from one another.
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Old 04-10-2011, 10:05 PM   #163
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Aha!

Quote:
Miles Coverdale Bible (1535)

Book of Leviticus 23:5 - Upon ye fourtene daye of ye first moneth at euen, is the LORDES Easter.
And my translation is vindicated!
Scraping the barrel, I see. You've just discovered you're not alone in your error.
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Old 04-10-2011, 10:07 PM   #164
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Miles Coverdale Bible? reaching.
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Old 04-10-2011, 10:09 PM   #165
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Spin, you may have missed my eta back in post #153
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Old 04-10-2011, 10:31 PM   #166
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I did miss this:
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Thinking about it, normally when I am reading from Hebrew text, I think in Hebrew idioms, I seldom even read/think in terms of any English words, unless I am actually engaged in preparing an English translation of the texts. then I'll think in terms of the best or most appropriated English words to express what I am receiving from the text. Other than that, when I read Hebrew בן אדם is simply בן אדם to me, with all of its idiomatic connotations that I am aware of in play.
I would think that if you regularly read Hebrew, that the same would be true for you.
I see no point in belaboring all of the possible English translations, as any that are at all accurate, are all inherent within the original term.
You are still refusing to deal with the issue. You haven't clarified בן אדם at all, just withdrawn from the English translation. So how do you periphrastically explain the content of בן אדם? This would help clarify the issue, as you've been wont to avoid going into the semantics. Is it similar to my attempt, "son of Adam" in the sense I've already analyzed above? If not, what exactly is the idea?

Is בן אדם ever used as a title in the HB? Is υιος του ανθρωπου ever used like בן אדם in the HB?

Can you answer the question I asked you in #150?
Can we agree that there is a disjunction in the use of son-of-man in the Hebrew bible compared with the use in the christian literature?
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Old 04-10-2011, 10:37 PM   #167
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In this light "son of man" would be considered a mild translation error in LXX Greek, υιος ανθρωπου ("son of man") (and note the difference with regard to the NT formulation, ο υιος του ανθρωπου).
Think of how much the English language and writing has changed in the last 300 years., even with voluminous dictionaries and myrid tomes on 'proper' English usage and composition.
Why would you think that Greek language and writing conventions should remain 'fixed' and completely static for the 3 to 4 century span between the composition of the LXX and the composition of the NT Greek texts?
A lot of water went under the bridge during those ages, and Hellenic society was expanding and incorporating into itself influences and conventions from many other cultures. This would be like expecting a 2011 version of our KJV Bibles to agree word for word, and letter for letter with the 1611 KJV Bible.
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Old 04-10-2011, 10:55 PM   #168
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I did miss this:
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Originally Posted by Sheshbazzar View Post
Thinking about it, normally when I am reading from Hebrew text, I think in Hebrew idioms, I seldom even read/think in terms of any English words, unless I am actually engaged in preparing an English translation of the texts. then I'll think in terms of the best or most appropriated English words to express what I am receiving from the text. Other than that, when I read Hebrew בן אדם is simply בן אדם to me, with all of its idiomatic connotations that I am aware of in play.
I would think that if you regularly read Hebrew, that the same would be true for you.
I see no point in belaboring all of the possible English translations, as any that are at all accurate, are all inherent within the original term.
You are still refusing to deal with the issue. You haven't clarified בן אדם at all, just withdrawn from the English translation. So how do you periphrastically explain the content of בן אדם? This would help clarify the issue, as you've been wont to avoid going into the semantics. Is it similar to my attempt, "son of Adam" in the sense I've already analyzed above? If not, what exactly is the idea?

Is בן אדם ever used as a title in the HB? Is υιος του ανθρωπου ever used like בן אדם in the HB?

Can you answer the question I asked you in #150?
Can we agree that there is a disjunction in the use of son-of-man in the Hebrew bible compared with the use in the christian literature?
I absolutely -agree- with you that there -is- a disjunction in the use of the son-of-man in the Hebrew bible compared with the use in the christian literature!

But that dosen't affect how the christian literature abuses or uses it. (as a proper personal TITLE)

Man. it just makes me sick to my stomach that every conversation between us, even separated by years, always devolve into debates over a bunch of niggling details.
Out of deep and sincere respect, I am attempting to avoid any debate or arguments with you.
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Old 04-10-2011, 11:33 PM   #169
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
In this light "son of man" would be considered a mild translation error in LXX Greek, υιος ανθρωπου ("son of man") (and note the difference with regard to the NT formulation, ο υιος του ανθρωπου).
Think of how much the English language and writing has changed in the last 300 years., even with voluminous dictionaries and myrid tomes on 'proper' English usage and composition.
Why would you think that Greek language and writing conventions should remain 'fixed' and completely static for the 3 to 4 century span between the composition of the LXX and the composition of the NT Greek texts?
A lot of water went under the bridge during those ages, and Hellenic society was expanding and incorporating into itself influences and conventions from many other cultures. This would be like expecting a 2011 version of our KJV Bibles to agree word for word, and letter for letter with the 1611 KJV Bible.
Sorry, this is another tangent. (How did אדם end up as ανθρωπος?)
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Old 04-11-2011, 01:06 AM   #170
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Sorry, this is another tangent. (How did אדם end up as ανθρωπος?)
I don't know, and I do not profess to have any personal skills in the reading or translating of the Greek language beyond being able to look up the opinions of those who do have expertise in this field.
I am now an old man, it is unlikely that I even have enough years left in me to gain even a minimal level of competence in the Greek language, and frankly it is not one of my life goals.

That out the way, one is Hebrew the other is Greek, and someone, I know not whom, a long time ago thought the latter would serve as a suitable Greek translation of the former. I am in no position to argue as to whether whomsoever did so, was right or wrong.

I don't claim to know everything, I only attempt to do the best that I know how, and make a positive contribution to these Forums by providing as much information and assistance to others as I am presently capable of.
Of course I sometimes make mistakes, or jump to unwarranted conclusions. Does no one else here?

I at least know the difference between Passover and Easter.
And I do think that many times I have been quite effective in explaining and expounding upon a number of matters to the satisfaction of most of the regular participants here, if the public 'thanks yous' and the private messages messages I have recieved are any indication.

But as I have said before, I respect you, and I thank you for what you have done for me. It has been life changing.

If I do not 'measure up' to your high standards, to be able to express my honest opinions here, even as others do daily, I am willing to regretfully yet permanently withdraw from FRDB, and as it were 'never to darken your doorway again'.
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