hatsoff

As we all should know, there's a text-critical issue in 1 Co 14. However, I'm somewhat unclear as to which words precisely are in doubt. There is a discrepancy between the implications of Gordon Fee, who omits 33b, and Daniel B. Wallace, who omits the phrase "For it is shameful for a woman to speak in the church" in v35. Unfortunately, neither author explicitly identifies the boundaries of the passage at issue.

In particular, Fee quotes the following as problematic:

34 the women should keep silent in the churches. For they are not permitted to speak, but should be in submission, as the Law also says. 35 If there is anything they desire to learn, let them ask their husbands at home. For it is shameful for a woman to speak in church.

whereas Wallace has this:

33b As in all the churches of the saints, 34 the women should keep silent in the churches. For they are not permitted to speak, but should be in submission, as the Law also says. 35a If there is anything they desire to learn, let them ask their husbands at home.

If it is helpful, Fee also states:

Most MSS (including P⁴⁶ A B K Ψ 0243 33 81 1739 Maj) include these verses here; they are found after v. 40 in D F G 88* a b d f g Ambrosiaster Sedulius-Scotus, thus the entire Western tradition.

Fee's comments: http://books.google.com/books?id=6K3KJR7fpcgC

Wallace's comments: http://bible.org/article/textual-pro...thians-1434-35

Any help would be much appreciated!

hatsoff

Okay, I've made some progress.

Here is the Greek text of 1 Co 14 transcribed. Presumably it's NA27 or something similarly Alexandrian-ish.

Here is a pdf file containing photos of Codex Boernerianus, or, simply, G, which according to Fee has vv34-35 out of place.

If we look on p83 of that pdf file, I transcribe the first few lines based on the Greek text in the first link as follows:

LINE 01: (32 cont.) φητῶν προφήταις ὑποτάσσεται· (33) οὐ γάρ ἐστιν ἀκατασ

LINE 02: τασίας ὁ ἀλλὰ εἰρήνης. ὡς ἐν πάσαις ταῖς ἐκκλησίαις

LINE 03: τῶν ἁγίων, ????? (36) ἢ ἀφ᾽ ὑμῶν ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ

LINE 04: ἐξῆλθεν, ἢ εἰς ὑμᾶς κατήντησεν; ...

In contrast, the sacred-texts link has the following:

(32 cont.) φητῶν προφήταις ὑποτάσσεται· (33) οὐ γάρ ἐστιν ἀκαταστασίας ὁ θεὸς ἀλλὰ εἰρήνης. ὡς ἐν πάσαις ταῖς ἐκκλησίαις τῶν ἁγίων, (34) αἱ γυναῖκες ἐν ταῖς ἐκκλησίαις σιγάτωσαν, οὐ γὰρ ἐπιτρέπεται αὐταῖς λαλεῖν· ἀλλὰ ὑποτασσέσθωσαν, καθὼς καὶ ὁ νόμος λέγει. (35) εἰ δέ τι μαθεῖν θέλουσιν, ἐν οἴκῳ τοὺς ἰδίους ἄνδρας ἐπερωτάτωσαν, αἰσχρὸν γάρ ἐστιν γυναικὶ λαλεῖν ἐν ἐκκλησίᾳ. (36) ἢ ἀφ᾽ ὑμῶν ὁ λόγος τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθεν, ἢ εἰς ὑμᾶς μόνους κατήντησεν;

I think my transcription is accurate enough for my purposes here, but a second opinion would be nice. So it seems I've solved the mystery: Vv34-35 exactly are relocated in the Western text. So apparently Fee was correct, not Wallace.