Freethought & Rationalism Archive

show_no_mercy · 08-11-2010, 02:19 PM

I read somewhere that the Greek ΔΙΑΒΟΛΟΣ is a literal translation of the Hebrew שטן (S[H]TN - Satan). Both mean "accuser" or "slanderer". The Greek is a compound word comprising of "dia" (through, across) and "ballw" (I throw).

I'm wondering how "I throw across" came to be equated with accusations and/or slander in Ancient Greek society.

Toto · 08-11-2010, 02:56 PM

http://etymonline.com/?term=devil

Quote:

...from Ecclesiastical Gk. diabolos, in Jewish and Christian use, "Devil, Satan" (scriptural loan-translation of Heb. satan), in general use "accuser, slanderer," from diaballein "to slander, attack," lit. "throw across," from dia- "across, through" + ballein "to throw" (see ballistics). ...

http://nineangles.wordpress.com/diabolic-etymology/

Quote:

The word diabolic itself derives from the Greek word diaballo meaning to “pass beyond” or “over”, from the root dia – “through” and, as a causal accusative, “with the aid of”. Later, diaballo acquired a moral sense – for example “to set against” (Aristotle) although it was sometimes used (as diabolos) when a ‘bad’ or ‘false’ sense was meant, as for example, a false accusation.

I have always thought of "the adversary" as something like an opponent in a tennis match, so I don't find the connection that mysterious.

08-11-2010, 02:19 PM	#1
show_no_mercy Veteran Member Join Date: Jul 2004 Location: Dancing Posts: 9,940	Etymology of "Diabolos" I read somewhere that the Greek ΔΙΑΒΟΛΟΣ is a literal translation of the Hebrew שטן (S[H]TN - Satan). Both mean "accuser" or "slanderer". The Greek is a compound word comprising of "dia" (through, across) and "ballw" (I throw). I'm wondering how "I throw across" came to be equated with accusations and/or slander in Ancient Greek society.

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