Strangeways

I just finished reading Friedman's "Who Wrote the Bible?" and he presented this theory, that the language in JEremiah and the Deuteronomistic History (Deuteronomy, Joshua, Judges, Samuel, and Kings) were so similar, and were based on the same theology and so Jeremiah wrote them all. Obviously he goes into more detail than that and gives examples, but that's the short version.

So my question is, how accepted is this theory? Are there other biblical scholars who agree with this hypothesis? I'm skeptical, simply because I wasn't a big fan of the book or any of his other theories. This is just the one that interested me the most. How well does it stand up under careful scholarly scrutiny?

Magdlyn

I am surprised this got no responses.

I have not read the book so can not comment.

Celsus

FAQ Question 1324: Is Friedman the best thing since sliced bread?

Answer: See here, here, here, here, here, etc.

Joel