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Old 09-24-2004, 08:38 AM   #51
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Originally Posted by DramaQ
If I understand your point here correctly, you’re saying that you can not ascribe as “fiction� a pericope in Mark simply on the grounds that a previous story shows its influence. That would follow (I presume) because Mark’s story could easily have happened BASICALLY as he tells it, and may only be “embellished� based on the earlier story.
Essentially, yes. In the case of JBap, Vork's method leads to a false conclusion--JBap was definitely (or as definitely as we can say, when dealing with such ancient sources) executed, yet without Josephus, and applying Vork's method, we would conclude that he wasn't.

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Old 09-24-2004, 08:40 AM   #52
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Sorry, I’m still a rookie here and am not yet familiar with all the personalities.
Don't fret. Even after 2 1/2 years (most of that as a moderator) I get confused by the personalities. Welcome to BC&H. Incidentally I was unaware that there were any other atheists in flatland USA.
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Old 09-24-2004, 08:55 AM   #53
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...just because a story was influenced (whether it was or not is a separate issue for the moment), doesn't mean that it didn't happen, and doesn't mean that there is nothing pre-Markan behind it.
Vork has never argued that the influence precludes that something happened. His argument is that once the influence is demonstrated, we have no reason to believe there is anything historical behind the story until otherwise proved.

The ultimate result of such a project would be to make it untenable to treat Mark as a document that contains history. Any such claim, without clear support from external vectors, at best, would be wishful.

Yes, there may have been some events involved. There may be some events involved behind the story of dracula. Maybe something happened in Paris that engendered the story. Maybe JBap spurned herodias' advances the same way Joseph turned away from Potiphar's wife. Maybe an unknown madman entered Jerusalem on the back of a donkey with children hitting him naughtily with tree branches...

The important thing is, can we rely on Mark to know what happened? Do we have any reason to believe that "something" happened?

The answer, barring external vectors, is an emphatic "No".
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Old 09-24-2004, 09:09 AM   #54
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rick Sumner
Essentially, yes. In the case of JBap, Vork's method leads to a false conclusion--JBap was definitely (or as definitely as we can say, when dealing with such ancient sources) executed, yet without Josephus, and applying Vork's method, we would conclude that he wasn't.
Ah hah! Now I’m getting it! You're saying:

If we accept that “influence from a prior story� proves “fiction� then
The Execution of JBap is fiction
(Josephus tells us otherwise)
If we accept that “real events can be repackaged based on a prior story� then
We can not use the method to weed out fiction
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Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
Vork has never argued that the influence precludes that something happened. His argument is that once the influence is demonstrated, we have no reason to believe there is anything historical behind the story until otherwise proved.
That makes sense to me. Vork’s method can show that the story is (probably) less than true. And without independent verification, we have no way of deciding how much (if any) “truth� has been included in the story.

Is it a “true story� embellished by unrelated/borrowed details or a fiction with bits of true story thrown into it?

I have to agree with Ted that the demonstration of borrowing shifts the burden of proof to the advocate of “true story�.

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Don't fret. Even after 2 1/2 years (most of that as a moderator) I get confused by the personalities. Welcome to BC&H. Incidentally I was unaware that there were any other atheists in flatland USA.
LOL! Think how many fewer of us there would be if there had been a “Sermon on the Plains�.
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Old 09-24-2004, 09:12 AM   #55
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Originally Posted by Rick Sumner
In the case of JBap, Vork's method leads to a false conclusion--JBap was definitely (or as definitely as we can say, when dealing with such ancient sources) executed, yet without Josephus, and applying Vork's method, we would conclude that he wasn't.
Any method can produce false conclusions if it is not able to use all relevant information. Rather than suggest the method must be discarded, I would think this observation simply suggests that it is wise to consider all conclusions, regardless of method, provisional.

Also, I would think that, absent Josephus, the best Vorkosigan's method could conclude is that we have no reliable information about how John died.
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Old 09-24-2004, 09:15 AM   #56
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Incidentally I was unaware that there were any other atheists in flatland USA.
I feel terrible now. You must have thought I was abandoning you to a life of atheistic isolation when I moved.
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Old 09-24-2004, 09:22 AM   #57
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
Any method can produce false conclusions if it is not able to use all relevant information. Rather than suggest the method must be discarded, I would think this observation simply suggests that it is wise to consider all conclusions, regardless of method, provisional.
I think it's best to consider all conclusions borne of method arbitrary, unless said method is consistently effective. Ironically, Vork seems to think the same thing of every methology save his own, frequently due to the same reversibility he confesses his own to have.

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Also, I would think that, absent Josephus, the best Vorkosigan's method could conclude is that we have no reliable information about how John died.
It can't even conclude that--the information Mark provides could be more or less reliable. The best it can conclude is that Mark was influenced by the OT, and not even that consistently, as the "strength" of a given parallel is inherently a subjective assessment.

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Old 09-24-2004, 09:27 AM   #58
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I feel terrible now. You must have thought I was abandoning you to a life of atheistic isolation when I moved.
Fortunately Mrs. Jimi is an atheist too. Plus, no offense, but I'm quite sure I much more enjoy cuddling with her than I would with you.
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Old 09-24-2004, 11:28 AM   #59
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Originally Posted by Toto
JP Holding (in an essay no longer on his site) says



Is there any basis for this?

And, of course, Leviticus 19:13 says "You shall not defraud your neighbor."
It is a commandment, naturally, but not of *the* commandments.

I've never read anything which says that it was forbidden to read out Exodus 20. Naturally you could not read it out *verbatim*, after all it included the name of God! Is this all Malina meant - that Jews did not pronounce the name of God?

'And they all heard a voice that came to all of them from above, insomuch that no one of these words escaped them, which Moses wrote on two tables; which it is not lawful for us to set down directly, but their import we will declare.'

http://www.earlychristianwritings.co...phus/ant-3.htm

Why this means that you are allowed to add 'Do not defraud', (which Matthew promptly removed from the sayings of Jesus when he rewrote Mark, is beyond me.
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Old 09-24-2004, 02:41 PM   #60
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rick Sumner
A reversible criteria is one that leads to false conclusions. It's objective value is non-existent. You stated at the outset that your goal was to ferret out what was pre-Markan, by eliminating everything that was Markan. Except your method for doing so is reversible, and sometimes demonstrably eliminates that which is pre-Markan.

That makes it useless.

Regards,
Rick Sumner
Vork's criteria don't eliminate JBap's existence, even though everyone in this discussion would agree that the JBap = Elijah part of Mark is a literary fiction. And in this case, Josephus actually confirms Vork, since Josephus accounts a completely different and likely more historical version of the actual events. Thus we know, by an outside vector, that Mark's account is fictional, and Vork merely added confirmation to it by showing its literary roots.
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