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Old 05-28-2005, 02:02 PM   #1
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Default The Anointing Stories: did John know Luke?

Re: Whether or not John knew Luke.

Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
John 11:1-2 introduces Lazarus, Mary, and Martha for the first time, and identifies Mary with this sentence: "Mary was the one who anointed the Lord with perfume and wiped his feet with her hair."

This explanation indicates that John's audience knows of a woman who annointed Jesus's feet etc. and equates her to Mary. But John only relates the annointing later at 12:1-3, so where does the audience's knowledge come from?

Not from either Mark 14:3-9 or Matt 26:6-13 who only mention the anointing of Jesus's hair (no feet, no woman's hair) at the home of Simon the Leper. Luke 7:37-39, on the other hand, presents the account of an anonymous woman who did just what John 11:2 said. John 11:2 identifies a woman narrated by Luke.
Yes, I agree with these observations, indicating that John indeed knows Luke.

But now, some problems begin...

Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
Luke's account, however, is based on Mark's version, not John's, because Luke's characteristic fatigue later in the account at 7:40 (calling the host "Simon") shows that Luke was editing Mark's, which names the host as Simon, not John's, which does not.
Luke's account of the Anointing is certainly not based on Mark's version IMO. It's the other way around...

Yes, in Lk, the host is called "Simon", and in Mk the host is also called "Simon". But this has nothing to do with any "fatigue". Carlson doesn't seem to understand what the term "fatigue" really means in Synoptic studies.

Mk uses the name "Simon" only once in this story,

(Mk 14:3) And while he was at Bethany in the house of Simon the leper, as he sat at table, a woman came with an alabaster flask of ointment...

But Lk uses the name "Simon" 3 times in this story!

(Lk 7:40) And Jesus answering said to him, "Simon, I have something to say to you." And he answered, "What is it, Teacher?"

(Lk 7:43) Simon answered, "The one, I suppose, to whom he forgave more."

(Lk 7:44) Then turning toward the woman he said to Simon, "Do you see this woman?

So what sort of a "fatigue" is it? This certainly has nothing to do with "fatigue".

Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
Furthermore John 11:1 identifies Bethany as "the village of Mary and Martha." Of the synoptics, only Luke's readers know of a Mary and Martha, but not the name of their village, which Luke kept anonymous (Luke 10:38-39). John's explanatory comment explains an obscurity in Luke. The other direction is more difficult (i.e. the Luke's obscurity passage based on John's explanation).
Yes, this item also indicates that John knows Luke.

Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
Also, John 3:24 out of the blue tells us that John the Baptist had not yet been thrown in prison. Such a clarification is needed most for Luke's readers since Luke related the imprisonment of John (Luke 3:19-20) before telling us that Jesus did anything at all, even getting baptized. However, Luke 3:19-20 is not dependent on John 3:24, but a summarization of John's imprisonment told in Mark 6:17-18 = Matt 14:3-4.
Now, this item is a bit more complicated, because I believe that Lk 3:19-20 (the early imprisonment of John) was not in the original Lk. Nevertheless, I still agree that it doesn't really seem like Lk 3:19-20 was based on Jn.

Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
Luke is needed to make sense of John's parenthetical comments, but John is not needed to understand Luke: Luke's normal redaction (and fatigue) of Mark is sufficient.
There was no redaction of Mark by Luke.

Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
On the other hand, the naming of anonymous actors is consistent with other passages of John, e.g. John's naming of both the disciple that chopped off the ear in the garden of Gethsemane and servant whose ear was chopped off (Peter and Malchus, respectively).
Yes, this one is a valid point.

Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
Streeter treats this issue in more detail in chapter 14 of his Four gospels.

Mark Matson's work arguing the other direction is focused on the passion narrative. If Matson's argument is accepted, then Luke and John need only share a common source for the passion.

Barbara Shellard (p. 244 n.162) does not address 3:24 and 11:1
These are some real problems in Shellard.

Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
and deals with 11:2 by suggesting that it is a "later addition" because "one assumes that neither evangelist would have wished there to be an identification of Mary of Bethany and the sinner of Luke 7." Shellard's suggestion in fact concedes the whole issue, and the pious assumption of not wishing the identification actually makes it harder to attribute it to later scribes.
In recent years, it's become fashionable among some interpreters to reject the idea that Mary Magdalene was really a prostitute (or at least someone 'sexually liberated', so to speak) before she met Jesus. According to such theories, she might have been 'virtuous' all her life; it was only much later that some Church fathers 'made' her into a prostitute.

For example,

=====quote=====

http://www.inq7.net/globalnation/col_pik/2005/mar28.htm

Pope Gregory the Great, in the 6th century, was the first to describe Mary Magdalene as a public sinner who repented.

=====unquote=====

So, here, the interpretation of Lk 7:36-8:3 becomes the key. Was this woman who anointed Jesus in Lk 7:36-8:3 really Mary Magdalene? If so, then clearly she wasn't 'virtuous' all her life.

It is true that, in our canonical Lk 7:36-8:3, the woman is not named explicitly as Mary Magdalene (although she might have been so named in the earlier versions of Lk). Nevertheless, Jn 11:1-2 makes it pretty clear that the name of the woman who anointed Jesus in Lk 7:36-8:3 was Mary, and that she later became a special friend of Jesus.

I certainly think that this 'special friend of Jesus' was Mary Magdalene, and that 'Mary of Bethany' was invented later as a virtuous female character, that Jesus required in his entourage.

All the best,

Yuri.
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Old 05-30-2005, 08:08 AM   #2
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Luke was well known. He was known as James of Zebedee. He was not killed, but making James "dead" allows him a new life under the code name Cornelius. Cornelius is the author of the Samaritan gospel LUKE, and he was taught by the Samaritan SIMON MAGUS also known as LAZARUS (Zebedee).

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Old 05-31-2005, 04:58 PM   #3
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James of Zebedee had a brother named JOHN of Zebedee, so, John would know Luke!, They're brothers.

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Old 06-03-2005, 12:49 PM   #4
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It's too bad that Carlson is unwilling to admit that he made some mistakes, when they are pointed out to him.

I thought this was a pretty interesting case where some of the typical knee-jerk assumptions on the part of the Synoptic scholars are exposed... And also, quite typically, the usual response is to run away and hide one's head in the sand... :wave:

Here we see an obvious case where Luke must have been the source of the other 3 NT gospels. And nobody but offa is interested! (In reply to offa, I'll just confess, once again, that I don't really understand anything he's saying... I guess I'm just not enlightened enough! )

And all this is happening at the time when there's a growing cadre of NT scholars, the followers of Farrer, who claim that Luke is the latest and the most derivative of the Synoptics... Yes, up is down, and the sun rises in the West every morning.

Regards,

Yuri.
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Old 06-03-2005, 01:26 PM   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Yuri Kuchinsky
It's too bad that Carlson is unwilling to admit that he made some mistakes, when they are pointed out to him.

I thought this was a pretty interesting case where some of the typical knee-jerk assumptions on the part of the Synoptic scholars are exposed... And also, quite typically, the usual response is to run away and hide one's head in the sand...
If you check his profile, you will find that Mr. Carlson has not visited the forum since the morning of May 28 while you started the thread later that day.
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Old 06-04-2005, 10:59 AM   #6
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Yuri Kuchinsky
Yes, up is down, and the sun rises in the West every morning.

Regards,

Yuri.
What else is new! Black is white and white is black or heaven would not be opposite to earth. But maybe that is just the way it should be, at least, it makes a complete metanoia possible.
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Old 06-04-2005, 01:40 PM   #7
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Yeah, Yuri, that really was uncalled for. Attacks like that are not warranted and automatically hurt your credibility, regardless of your position...
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Old 06-06-2005, 07:49 AM   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Amaleq13
If you check his profile, you will find that Mr. Carlson has not visited the forum since the morning of May 28 while you started the thread later that day.
Yeah, I've been away on vacation with a poor Internet connection. At any rate, Yuri and I seem to agree on the bottom line as far as John's knowledge of Luke, regardless of our disagreement on the relationship between Luke and Mark. That's really an ancillary issue that begs more questions than needed to address the specific literary relationship between Luke and John.

The other disagreement is on the meaning of fatigue. I've been using this term in the sense of Mark Goodacre's seminal article (online at http://www.ntgateway.com/Q/fatigue.htm). I have no idea what Yuri's sense of the technical term is supposed to be.

Stephen
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Old 06-06-2005, 12:51 PM   #9
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Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
Yeah, I've been away on vacation with a poor Internet connection. At any rate, Yuri and I seem to agree on the bottom line as far as John's knowledge of Luke, regardless of our disagreement on the relationship between Luke and Mark. That's really an ancillary issue that begs more questions than needed to address the specific literary relationship between Luke and John.
The question of what was the earliest anointing story is hardly "an ancillary issue", although it can be treated as separate from the question of whether or not Jn used Lk.

Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
The other disagreement is on the meaning of fatigue. I've been using this term in the sense of Mark Goodacre's seminal article (online at http://www.ntgateway.com/Q/fatigue.htm).
Not really, as this quote from the above page indicates,

"Editorial fatigue is a phenomenon that will
inevitably occur when a writer is heavily
dependent on another's work. In telling the same
story as his predecessor, a writer makes changes in
the early stages which he is unable to sustain
throughout. Like continuity errors in film and
television, examples of fatigue will be unconscious
mistakes, small errors of detail which naturally
arise in the course of constructing a narrative."

Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
I have no idea what Yuri's sense of the technical term is supposed to be.

Stephen
See above.

Yuri.
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