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Old 03-02-2010, 04:59 PM   #1
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Default Paul's Jesus according to spamandham and me

Introduction
This thread is all about which theory explains the problems of the Pauline epistles most efficiently:
  1. Paul's belief in a historical Jesus or
  2. Paul's belief in a merely spiritual Jesus.
It is not a matter of whether or not Jesus existed. It is a matter of whether or not Paul believed that Jesus existed as a human being. The theory that Paul's Jesus was merely a spiritual entity is not essential to Jesus-mythicism, but it seems especially popular among mythicists, such as Earl Doherty. spamandham also accepts it, but take note that spamandham does not prefer the term mythicist; he is an advocate of the gospels being "origins stories." G.A. Wells used to advocate it, but he has since abandoned it (reportedly). To me, it is a slam dunk, because of a set of passages that clearly indicate belief in a physically human Jesus:
  • "born of a woman" Galatians 4:4
  • "who as to his human nature was a descendant of David" Romans 1:3
  • "I saw none of the other apostles--save James, the Lord's brother" Galatians 1:19
  • "The Lord Jesus, on the night he was betrayed, took bread, and when he had given thanks, he broke it... In the same way, after supper he took the cup..." 1 Corinthians 11:23-25
  • "None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory." 1 Corinthians 2:8
  • "You suffered from your own countrymen the same things those churches suffered from the Jews, who killed the Lord Jesus and the prophets and also drove us out." 1 Thessalonians 2:14-16
  • "that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, that he was buried" 1 Corinthians 15:4
Regardless of whatever set of explanations a mythicist may have, these items do carry at least some weight, if either a little or a lot. spamandham is a little uncomfortable to merely dismiss them with a wave of the hand--but, he thinks that the small set of passages in favor of a human Jesus is overturned by a larger set of problems that can be best solved with Paul's belief in a spiritual, not a human, Jesus (see this post). Until now, I have ignored them. Now, I would like to address them.

Proposed problems with Paul's belief in a human Jesus
spamandham's proposed problem:

Quote:
- why didn't Paul quote from Jesus?
spamandham's explanation:

Quote:
- Paul didn't quote from Jesus because Paul's Jesus was a revealed heavenly person and not a historical person
My explanation:

There is a weird assumption that underlies this proposed problem: Paul is less likely to quote from a spiritual Jesus than a human Jesus, as if a spiritual Jesus would not talk to Paul. Is this assumption warranted? Why? Would not a spiritual Jesus be more likely to be quoted? Unlike a human Jesus, there is no way to dispute or contradict a spiritual Jesus revealed only to Paul.

In fact, there are at least two times that Paul quotes from Jesus, one time from a spiritual Jesus:

2 Corinthians 12:9
7Because of the surpassing greatness of the revelations, for this reason, to keep me from exalting myself, there was given me a thorn in the flesh, a messenger of Satan to torment me--to keep me from exalting myself! 8 Concerning this I implored the Lord three times that it might leave me. 9 And He has said to me, "My grace is sufficient for you, for power is perfected in weakness."
...and another time from a physically human Jesus:

1 Corinthians 11:24-25
23 For I received from the Lord that which I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus in the night in which He was betrayed took bread; 24 and when He had given thanks, He broke it and said, "This is My body, which is for you; do this in remembrance of Me." 25 In the same way He took the cup also after supper, saying, "This cup is the new covenant in My blood; do this, as often as you drink it, in remembrance of Me."
But, perhaps because of the relatively few times that Paul quotes from Jesus, those passages can be seen as interpolations. A good explanation can at least be speculated: Paul did not know the sayings of Jesus, except what he got second-hand. His most important religious rivals were direct disciples of Jesus. If he quoted from Jesus, he would easily lose a dispute. "Jesus never said that. I know, because I was there! Where were you?"

That solution is a little ad hoc, I guess. But, is it any less likely than the MJ alternative? Why would Paul not quote from a spiritual Jesus?

spamandham's proposed problem:

Quote:
- why doesn't Paul tell us what made Jesus' particular crucifixion special?
spamandham's explanation:

Quote:
- Paul doesn't need to tell us what made the crucifixion of Jesus special, because he's using it symbolically and both he and early Christians knew that
My explanation:

Well, for one thing, Jesus' crucifixion really wasn't special. It was like any other Roman crucifixion. Paul certainly would have thought of this particular crucifixion as special, and, in fact, he did make an explanation:

Romans 8:3
For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God {did:} sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and {as an offering} for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh,
spamandham's proposed problem:

Quote:
- why does Paul repeatedly use variants of the word 'crucify' in places where it is impossible that it's referring to a historical crucifixion?
spamandham's explanation:

Quote:
- Paul uses 'crucify' loosely because he is not referring to a Roman crucifixion, but instead to the complete annihilation of a fleshly outlook on life.
My explanation:

It is true that Paul often throws around the words for "crucify" and "cross" metaphorically. That is generally what evangelists and preachers tend to do, especially Paul. However, you cannot easily ignore the occasions where no explanation fits but a very Earthly physical human crucifixion:

Galatians 3:1
You foolish Galatians, who has bewitched you, before whose eyes Jesus Christ was publicly portrayed {as} crucified?
Examining the context, Paul was referring to the bewitchers as the Christians in the camp of Peter (Cephas), James and John, who were with Jesus at the time he was crucified (according to the gospel myths).

Philippians 2:8
Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.
What does Paul mean here? Being found in appearance as a man, in a spiritual sense?

spamandham's proposed problem:

Quote:
- why is the crucifixion/resurrection coupled to a rejection of Jewish law if it's historical rather than symbolic?
spamandham's explanation:

Quote:
- The crucifixion is intertwined with the end of the law, because those who are fully devoted to a spiritual life are aligned with the real spirit of god rather than the silly legalistic ways of the law. Paul explains this explicitly in Galatians, and even makes an 'out' for Jews who follow the law because they understand this, rather than those who do so for legalistic reasons. The crucifixion of the flesh and the subsequent ending of the law is what makes a gentile mission possible at all.
My explanation:

Paul had a theological agenda--many, in fact--and the way he advanced his various agenda is by weaving it into the crucifixion and resurrection of Jesus. It makes no difference whether he thought of the crucifixion as spiritual or symbolic.

spamandham's proposed problem:

Quote:
- in a couple of places, Paul refers to a demonstration of the crucifixion? How can he possibly be referring to a historical crucifixion
spamandham's explanation:

Quote:
- Paul's demonstration of the crucifixion is simply his argument for how the idea is derived from scripture
My explanation:

I simply don't know what spamandham means with the phrase, "demonstration of the crucifixion." Sorry.

spamandham's proposed problem:

Quote:
- why does Paul only refer to witnesses of Jesus who are post-resurrection?
spamandham's explanation:

Quote:
- Paul's witnesses are all post resurrection witnesses, because Jesus only ever appears in visions
My explanation:

I will repeat Galatians 3:1. This is referring to bewitchers who were present during the crucifixion, ergo, before the resurrection.
You foolish Galatians, who has bewitched you, before whose eyes Jesus Christ was publicly portrayed {as} crucified?
Besides, how well does spamandham's explanation really fit? Is he saying that Paul's Jesus is unlikely to have appeared to people spiritually before the resurrection? Why?

Conclusion
It is not that I think Paul's Jesus was exclusively physical, the same way the real Jesus probably was. Paul clearly refers to a spiritual Jesus many times. So, it seems like the most reasonable conclusion is that Paul believed in both.

Proposed problems with a historical Jesus
The rest of these proposed problems relate to the gospels, not to Paul's model of Jesus, so it relates more directly with the historicity of Jesus, but I will answer them anyway.

spamandham's proposed problem:

Quote:
- what happened to Jesus family? why do they just fall off the face of the earth?
spamandham's explanation:

Quote:
- Jesus family disappears from history because they never existed in the first place
My explanation:

In fact, the family of Jesus was not lost to history. Paul mentions James, "the Lord's brother," the Christian gospels mention Mary, Joseph, the unnamed sisters and the names of all four brothers of Jesus, and Josephus mentions James, "the brother of Jesus." What is the problem again?

spamandham's proposed problem:

Quote:
- why was Jesus tomb' not venerated? There is no evidence that Christians ever knew where it was.
spamandham's explanation:

Quote:
- There was no tomb, so there was nothing to venerate. The gospel authors concocted an empty tomb story in response to this problem.
My explanation:

Jesus really had no tomb. The Roman poet Pseudo-Manetho wrote about crucifixion:
“Punished with limbs outstretched, they see the stake as their fate; they are fastened and nailed to it in the most bitter torment, evil food for bird of prey and grim pickings for dogs”
It is likely that Jesus suffered the same fate: his body was left on the stake, and scavenging animals picked apart his body, leaving nothing--perhaps allowing the women to believe that he had resurrected. Christian myth developed a tomb of Jesus, because the retrospective prophecy of Isaiah 53 required it:
And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death.
spamandham's proposed problem:

Quote:
- why does the passion read like it was constructed right out of Isaiah 53 and Psalm 22?
spamandham's explanation:

Quote:
- The passion reads like it was constructed directly from Isaiah 53 and Psalm 22, because it was. There was no collective memory of any details of a historical crucifixion, so they could easily get away with this. They placed the events an exact symbolic 40 years prior to the destruction of the temple.
My explanation:

Christians did try to fit the Passion narrative to the Old Testament as best as they could. But, there are, in fact, significant differences between Isaiah 53 and the Christian narrative.
He was oppressed and afflicted,
yet he did not open his mouth
There are times where Jesus keeps his mouth shut (Mark 14:61), but there are very significant scenes where Jesus opens it (Mark 15:37).
He was assigned a grave with the wicked,
and with the rich in his death,
Jesus would have to be assigned a grave with someone who is both rich and wicked. But, if a rich man is charitable enough to allow a tomb for Jesus, would he also be wicked? So Christians settled on just rich (Mark 15:42-46).
he will see his offspring and prolong his days,
He prolonged his days (this may have been the key passage that motivated belief in the resurrection of Jesus), but he did not see his offspring. Jesus had no children (as far we know).

Psalm 22 is another retrospective prophecy that shaped the orthodox gospel story. Again, there are significant differences.
16 Dogs have surrounded me;
a band of evil men has encircled me,
they have pierced my hands and my feet.

17 I can count all my bones;
people stare and gloat over me.

18 They divide my garments among them
and cast lots for my clothing.

19 But you, O LORD, be not far off;
O my Strength, come quickly to help me.

20 Deliver my life from the sword,
my precious life from the power of the dogs.

21 Rescue me from the mouth of the lions;
save [d] me from the horns of the wild oxen.
In the passion narratives, there are none of these things:
  • dogs
  • sword
  • lions
  • oxen
Instead of a sword, there is a spear that delivers the killing blow. Why is that? Perhaps because Jesus really was killed with a Roman spear.

If the gospels were constructed entirely from these Judaic scriptures, then we would expect 100% of the elements to fit the gospels. Instead, it looks more like edits were made, for a variety of reasons, from a story that Christians originally did not choose. It certainly would not be expected that anyone would weave a first-century story around Psalm 22 and Isaiah 53. The former is mostly in present tense and the latter is mostly in past tense.

What explains the two thieves crucified alongside Jesus? What explains the betrayal by Judas? What explains the denials of Peter?
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Old 03-02-2010, 05:58 PM   #2
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Originally Posted by ApostateAbe View Post

Conclusion
It is not that I think Paul's Jesus was exclusively physical, the same way the real Jesus probably was. Paul clearly refers to a spiritual Jesus many times. So, it seems like the most reasonable conclusion is that Paul believed in both.
I agree, but the problem is this still doesn't get us a historically identifiable person, for the way he describes it, he could easily be talking about (for example) an entity revealed in Scripture to the Jerusalem crowd, and revealed personally (in visionary experience) to him. An entity that they/he believed historically existed, but we know in fact didn't (because it came from a) scripture, and b) was encountered in trance states - i.e. it was all in peoples' minds, in one way or another).

I also agree partly with your criticism of spamanham's point about not getting quotes from a heavenly person. Most likely, his visionary Jesus (and we all agree he had one, right - were they just gazing pleasantly into each others' eyes in their encounters? ) would have spoken to him in riddles, as these kinds of visions often do - although I do think it's plausible Paul wheedled some kind of basic biography from his Jesus too - i.e. Paul believed Jesus had been physically crucified partly because his visionary Jesus told him about it ("Know, Paul, that I was crucified by the rulers of this world [&c]" - that type of thing, again, it ought to be a piece of background knowledge of all investigators of these matters that these things happen, strange beings appear to talk to visionaries and dreamers in their visions and dreams). i.e. his visionary Jesus may have given him confirmation of some of what the Jerusalem people suspected they had seen in Scripture (which may be why he went to see them, why he felt there was some link between them and him). At any rate, it's not necessarily a strong objection that we can't find direct quotes - to either the HJ or the MJ positions.

But mostly, again, my main sticking point is that to get any quotes to be words from a historical person, you need reason to believe a historical person was there - if you find one THEN, ah yes, it makes perfect sense, Paul must have been partly responding (albeit in a peculiar, distal, visionary way) to a real human being. The logic has to be that way round, the logical necessity flows in that direction. Otherwise you just have Paul describing what could easily be plain visions, with the Christ figure in them being subjectively real to him, but having no significance for us historical investigators (it doesn't help us find a human Jesus).

In fact, come to think of it, that's how I'd rather think of the argument from silence re. Paul - it's not that it disproves a human Jesus, it just makes Paul of dubious value as evidence for a human Jesus.
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Old 03-02-2010, 06:23 PM   #3
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ApostateAbe View Post
Introduction
This thread is all about which theory explains the problems of the Pauline epistles most efficiently:
  1. Paul's belief in a historical Jesus or
  2. Paul's belief in a merely spiritual Jesus.
It is not a matter of whether or not Jesus existed. It is a matter of whether or not Paul believed that Jesus existed as a human being.
But you are assuming that Paul himself was a historical person, right? What if Paul was a mythical/fictional character who was writing about another mythical/fictional character?
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Old 03-02-2010, 06:38 PM   #4
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ApostateAbe View Post
Introduction
This thread is all about which theory explains the problems of the Pauline epistles most efficiently:
  1. Paul's belief in a historical Jesus or
  2. Paul's belief in a merely spiritual Jesus.
It is not a matter of whether or not Jesus existed. It is a matter of whether or not Paul believed that Jesus existed as a human being. The theory that Paul's Jesus was merely a spiritual entity is not essential to Jesus-mythicism, but it seems especially popular among mythicists, such as Earl Doherty. spamandham also accepts it, but take note that spamandham does not prefer the term mythicist; he is an advocate of the gospels being "origins stories." G.A. Wells used to advocate it, but he has since abandoned it (reportedly). To me, it is a slam dunk, because of a set of passages that clearly indicate belief in a physically human Jesus:
  • "born of a woman" Galatians 4:4
  • "who as to his human nature was a descendant of David" Romans 1:3
  • "I saw none of the other apostles--save James, the Lord's brother" Galatians 1:19
  • "The Lord Jesus, on the night he was betrayed, took bread, and when he had given thanks, he broke it... In the same way, after supper he took the cup..." 1 Corinthians 11:23-25
  • "None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory." 1 Corinthians 2:8
  • "You suffered from your own countrymen the same things those churches suffered from the Jews, who killed the Lord Jesus and the prophets and also drove us out." 1 Thessalonians 2:14-16
  • "that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, that he was buried" 1 Corinthians 15:4
Regardless of whatever set of explanations a mythicist may have, these items do carry at least some weight, if either a little or a lot. spamandham is a little uncomfortable to merely dismiss them with a wave of the hand--but, he thinks that the small set of passages in favor of a human Jesus is overturned by a larger set of problems that can be best solved with Paul's belief in a spiritual, not a human, Jesus (see this post). Until now, I have ignored them. Now, I would like to address them.

Proposed problems with Paul's belief in a human Jesus
spamandham's proposed problem:

Quote:
- why didn't Paul quote from Jesus?
spamandham's explanation:



My explanation:

There is a weird assumption that underlies this proposed problem: Paul is less likely to quote from a spiritual Jesus than a human Jesus, as if a spiritual Jesus would not talk to Paul. Is this assumption warranted? Why? Would not a spiritual Jesus be more likely to be quoted? Unlike a human Jesus, there is no way to dispute or contradict a spiritual Jesus revealed only to Paul.

In fact, there are at least two times that Paul quotes from Jesus, one time from a spiritual Jesus:

2 Corinthians 12:9
7Because of the surpassing greatness of the revelations, for this reason, to keep me from exalting myself, there was given me a thorn in the flesh, a messenger of Satan to torment me--to keep me from exalting myself! 8 Concerning this I implored the Lord three times that it might leave me. 9 And He has said to me, "My grace is sufficient for you, for power is perfected in weakness."
...and another time from a physically human Jesus:

1 Corinthians 11:24-25
23 For I received from the Lord that which I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus in the night in which He was betrayed took bread; 24 and when He had given thanks, He broke it and said, "This is My body, which is for you; do this in remembrance of Me." 25 In the same way He took the cup also after supper, saying, "This cup is the new covenant in My blood; do this, as often as you drink it, in remembrance of Me."
But, perhaps because of the relatively few times that Paul quotes from Jesus, those passages can be seen as interpolations. A good explanation can at least be speculated: Paul did not know the sayings of Jesus, except what he got second-hand. His most important religious rivals were direct disciples of Jesus. If he quoted from Jesus, he would easily lose a dispute. "Jesus never said that. I know, because I was there! Where were you?"

That solution is a little ad hoc, I guess. But, is it any less likely than the MJ alternative? Why would Paul not quote from a spiritual Jesus?

spamandham's proposed problem:



spamandham's explanation:



My explanation:

Well, for one thing, Jesus' crucifixion really wasn't special. It was like any other Roman crucifixion. Paul certainly would have thought of this particular crucifixion as special, and, in fact, he did make an explanation:

Romans 8:3
For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God {did:} sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and {as an offering} for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh,
spamandham's proposed problem:



spamandham's explanation:



My explanation:

It is true that Paul often throws around the words for "crucify" and "cross" metaphorically. That is generally what evangelists and preachers tend to do, especially Paul. However, you cannot easily ignore the occasions where no explanation fits but a very Earthly physical human crucifixion:

Galatians 3:1
You foolish Galatians, who has bewitched you, before whose eyes Jesus Christ was publicly portrayed {as} crucified?
Examining the context, Paul was referring to the bewitchers as the Christians in the camp of Peter (Cephas), James and John, who were with Jesus at the time he was crucified (according to the gospel myths).

Philippians 2:8
Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.
What does Paul mean here? Being found in appearance as a man, in a spiritual sense?

spamandham's proposed problem:



spamandham's explanation:



My explanation:

Paul had a theological agenda--many, in fact--and the way he advanced his various agenda is by weaving it into the crucifixion and resurrection of Jesus. It makes no difference whether he thought of the crucifixion as spiritual or symbolic.

spamandham's proposed problem:



spamandham's explanation:



My explanation:

I simply don't know what spamandham means with the phrase, "demonstration of the crucifixion." Sorry.

spamandham's proposed problem:



spamandham's explanation:



My explanation:

I will repeat Galatians 3:1. This is referring to bewitchers who were present during the crucifixion, ergo, before the resurrection.
You foolish Galatians, who has bewitched you, before whose eyes Jesus Christ was publicly portrayed {as} crucified?
Besides, how well does spamandham's explanation really fit? Is he saying that Paul's Jesus is unlikely to have appeared to people spiritually before the resurrection? Why?

Conclusion
It is not that I think Paul's Jesus was exclusively physical, the same way the real Jesus probably was. Paul clearly refers to a spiritual Jesus many times. So, it seems like the most reasonable conclusion is that Paul believed in both.

Proposed problems with a historical Jesus
The rest of these proposed problems relate to the gospels, not to Paul's model of Jesus, so it relates more directly with the historicity of Jesus, but I will answer them anyway.

spamandham's proposed problem:



spamandham's explanation:



My explanation:

In fact, the family of Jesus was not lost to history. Paul mentions James, "the Lord's brother," the Christian gospels mention Mary, Joseph, the unnamed sisters and the names of all four brothers of Jesus, and Josephus mentions James, "the brother of Jesus." What is the problem again?

spamandham's proposed problem:



spamandham's explanation:



My explanation:

Jesus really had no tomb. The Roman poet Pseudo-Manetho wrote about crucifixion:
“Punished with limbs outstretched, they see the stake as their fate; they are fastened and nailed to it in the most bitter torment, evil food for bird of prey and grim pickings for dogs”
It is likely that Jesus suffered the same fate: his body was left on the stake, and scavenging animals picked apart his body, leaving nothing--perhaps allowing the women to believe that he had resurrected. Christian myth developed a tomb of Jesus, because the retrospective prophecy of Isaiah 53 required it:
And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death.
spamandham's proposed problem:



spamandham's explanation:

Quote:
- The passion reads like it was constructed directly from Isaiah 53 and Psalm 22, because it was. There was no collective memory of any details of a historical crucifixion, so they could easily get away with this. They placed the events an exact symbolic 40 years prior to the destruction of the temple.
My explanation:

Christians did try to fit the Passion narrative to the Old Testament as best as they could. But, there are, in fact, significant differences between Isaiah 53 and the Christian narrative.
He was oppressed and afflicted,
yet he did not open his mouth
There are times where Jesus keeps his mouth shut (Mark 14:61), but there are very significant scenes where Jesus opens it (Mark 15:37).
He was assigned a grave with the wicked,
and with the rich in his death,
Jesus would have to be assigned a grave with someone who is both rich and wicked. But, if a rich man is charitable enough to allow a tomb for Jesus, would he also be wicked? So Christians settled on just rich (Mark 15:42-46).
he will see his offspring and prolong his days,
He prolonged his days (this may have been the key passage that motivated belief in the resurrection of Jesus), but he did not see his offspring. Jesus had no children (as far we know).

Psalm 22 is another retrospective prophecy that shaped the orthodox gospel story. Again, there are significant differences.
16 Dogs have surrounded me;
a band of evil men has encircled me,
they have pierced my hands and my feet.

17 I can count all my bones;
people stare and gloat over me.

18 They divide my garments among them
and cast lots for my clothing.

19 But you, O LORD, be not far off;
O my Strength, come quickly to help me.

20 Deliver my life from the sword,
my precious life from the power of the dogs.

21 Rescue me from the mouth of the lions;
save [d] me from the horns of the wild oxen.
In the passion narratives, there are none of these things:
  • dogs
  • sword
  • lions
  • oxen
Instead of a sword, there is a spear that delivers the killing blow. Why is that? Perhaps because Jesus really was killed with a Roman spear.

If the gospels were constructed entirely from these Judaic scriptures, then we would expect 100% of the elements to fit the gospels. Instead, it looks more like edits were made, for a variety of reasons, from a story that Christians originally did not choose. It certainly would not be expected that anyone would weave a first-century story around Psalm 22 and Isaiah 53. The former is mostly in present tense and the latter is mostly in past tense.

What explains the two thieves crucified alongside Jesus? What explains the betrayal by Judas? What explains the denials of Peter?
Awesome post! It's quite shocking to see it all laid out in black and white like that.

It's possible to think of Paul as responding to a symbolic crucifixion of a figure who is only transcendent. It's possible to imagine him cognizant only of aspects of "in the flesh" that relate to circumcision and to more general human suffering that's merely paralleled rather than directly experienced by a mystical compound Jesus existing only in the ether. It's possible to imagine him as viewing Jesus as strictly a visionary experience of the metaphysical, and real only in that. These are possible construals, but they're way down on the list after the far more plausible:-

Paul makes the occasional reference to a human Jesus through referencing his sayings in 1 Corinthians, and makes the distinction elsewhere between apostles versus members of Jesus's family, and speaks explicitly of him having suffered a typical Roman execution -- and references so much else that tallies with an account of a human Jesus -- for the plain reason that Paul really did conceive of Jesus as a human being who really lived on earth, whatever other qualities Paul may give Jesus in addition.

That's the earliest evidence we have as to the type of thing that was going on here (and we have it from "Paul"'s own words): we DON'T have direct evidence of any ancient conception of some Jesus suffering elsewhere than on earth; that's merely a far-fetched construal. We DO have positive evidence that AT LEAST Paul did conceive of Jesus as having a human biography. Combine that with the ABSENCE of any unequivocal evidence for any purely symbolic construction on Jesus's sufferings from any of the other earliest texts. Combine that with the distinct referenceS at crucial points in the earliest texts to people intimately acquainted with Jesus, including family members, who knew a human Jesus PERSONALLY. So: there is probable evidence OF a human Jesus, and there is nothing that logically necessitates that there be NO human Jesus (because we can very easily explain how metaphysical baggage was added to Jesus's biography, but we tie ourselves in knots if we try subtracting the plainly human features in the earliest extant texts that bear out the probable evidence we DO have elsewhere of an historical and purely human Jesus).

Chaucer
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Old 03-02-2010, 06:40 PM   #5
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arnoldo

That seems to be making a myth overly complicated. Fiction tends to be simpler and more logical than non-fiction. The fact that Paul seems to contradict himself fits with a real person.
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Old 03-02-2010, 06:50 PM   #6
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Originally Posted by ApostateAbe View Post
...
That solution is a little ad hoc, I guess. But, is it any less likely than the MJ alternative? Why would Paul not quote from a spiritual Jesus?
The spiritual Jesus would communicate through emotional experience, or secret messages that were not for the uninitiated. How do you communicate a mystical experience?

In fact, most of your explanations seem ad hoc.

Quote:
...

In fact, the family of Jesus was not lost to history. Paul mentions James, "the Lord's brother," the Christian gospels mention Mary, Joseph, the unnamed sisters and the names of all four brothers of Jesus, and Josephus mentions James, "the brother of Jesus." What is the problem again?
The problem is that the family of Jesus disappears from the record after the first part of Acts. (His "father" Joseph disappears much earlier.) They seem to have played no part in the early church. The identification of James the Just with the James who was the brother mentioned in the gospels is problematic.
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Old 03-02-2010, 11:11 PM   #7
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arnoldo

That seems to be making a myth overly complicated. Fiction tends to be simpler and more logical than non-fiction. The fact that Paul seems to contradict himself fits with a real person.
But it must have been real persons who wrote everything we read about Jesus in the Canon.

The question is when did they write.

So far it has been deduced, contrary to the Church writers, that the Gospels were not written or not likely to have been written by anyone called Matthew, Mark, Luke and John and further that the Gospels were written later than the Church writers would have us believe.

Again, It has been deduced that more than one person used the name Paul to write Epistles contrary to the Church writers and that Acts of the Apostles was written later than the Church writers claimed.

So, we have a pattern developing, the Church writers are trying to place their Jesus story ealier than it should have been. The Church writers are trying to claim that their Jesus was the origin of Christianity.

But, the chronology, early dating and authorship given by Church writers are being denied and discarded. Their Jesus story was late and the authors are unknown.

The entire Canon must be or is very likely to be later than the Church writers would like us to believe.
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Old 03-02-2010, 11:38 PM   #8
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- why didn't Paul quote from Jesus?
My explanation:

There is a weird assumption that underlies this proposed problem: Paul is less likely to quote from a spiritual Jesus than a human Jesus, as if a spiritual Jesus would not talk to Paul. Is this assumption warranted?
When I said Paul does't quote Jesus, what I mean was that he does not quote a earthly historical Jesus. However, Paul *does* quote from the spiritual Jesus as you noted, and Paul only ever mentions having a single vision:

I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago was caught up to the third heaven. Whether it was in the body or out of the body I do not know—God knows. And I know that this man—whether in the body or apart from the body I do not know, but God knows— was caught up to paradise. He heard inexpressible things, things that man is not permitted to tell. I will boast about a man like that, but I will not boast about myself, except about my weaknesses. Even if I should choose to boast, I would not be a fool, because I would be speaking the truth. But I refrain, so no one will think more of me than is warranted by what I do or say.
To keep me from becoming conceited because of these surpassingly great revelations, there was given me a thorn in my flesh, a messenger of Satan, to torment me. Three times I pleaded with the Lord to take it away from me. But he said to me, "My grace is sufficient for you, for my power is made perfect in weakness."
Quote:
In fact, there are at least two times that Paul quotes from Jesus, one time from a spiritual Jesus:

2 Corinthians 12:9 ....

...and another time from a physically human Jesus:

1 Corinthians 11:24-25
23 For I received from the Lord that which I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus in the night in which He was betrayed took bread; 24 and when He had given thanks, He broke it and said, "This is My body, which is for you; do this in remembrance of Me." 25 In the same way He took the cup also after supper, saying, "This cup is the new covenant in My blood; do this, as often as you drink it, in remembrance of Me."
Are you telling us you think this passage is authentic!? But even so, suppose it was. How can you reconcile this with the rest of Paul's statements about his gospel unless you attribute this to a revelation?

Quote:
But, perhaps because of the relatively few times that Paul quotes from Jesus, those passages can be seen as interpolations. A good explanation can at least be speculated:
Ah, I see. You must *harmonize* the evidence to fit your theory (I suppose any idea can be supported using this approach). But ok, let's see how reasonable it is anyway.

Quote:
Paul did not know the sayings of Jesus, except what he got second-hand.
....nevertheless, he knew Jesus personally and can thus quote from him in 1 Cor 11. You do realize your argument is being evaluated on whole for consistency, and not just in snippets, right?

Quote:
His most important religious rivals were direct disciples of Jesus. If he quoted from Jesus, he would easily lose a dispute. "Jesus never said that. I know, because I was there! Where were you?"
There is nothing in the Pauline corpus to support this idea. Paul even goes out of his way to bribe the Jerusalem church into letting him spread his bizarre ideas to gentiles. The relationship might be contentious in that Paul wants to belong and the Jerusalem church thinks he's a nut, but if Paul could say *anything* from the lips of Jesus that would support his bizarre gospel, surely he would have.

Quote:
Why would Paul not quote from a spiritual Jesus?
a. Paul only had a single spiritual encounter and what he saw he tells us as being indescribable.

b. Nevertheless, he does

spamandham's proposed problem:

Quote:
Well, for one thing, Jesus' crucifixion really wasn't special. It was like any other Roman crucifixion. Paul certainly would have thought of this particular crucifixion as special, and, in fact, he did make an explanation:

Romans 8:3
For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God {did:} sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and {as an offering} for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh,
Everyone just knows that Jesus was god's son. No reason to offer up any further explanation. The point is that unless Paul explains to us what makes Jesus special - *why* he is believed to be god's son - his crucifixion is just that of any other Jew. Paul starts with the assumption that Jesus is God's son. Why?

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It is true that Paul often throws around the words for "crucify" and "cross" metaphorically.
Good. We agree on something.

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That is generally what evangelists and preachers tend to do,
Of course they do. They are following Paul's lead!

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However, you cannot easily ignore the occasions where no explanation fits but a very Earthly physical human crucifixion:


Galatians 3:1
You foolish Galatians, who has bewitched you, before whose eyes Jesus Christ was publicly portrayed {as} crucified?
This is almost the worst instance you could have chosen to demonstrate an earthly historical crucifixion. How could the Galatians deny the crucifixion if they witnessed it personally!? That's crazy, they couldn't. So obviously they didn't.

What they are questioning is Paul's *portrayal* of the crucifixion. What on earth could that possibly mean if not either a performance of some kind (some scholars argue that Paul is an actor) , or an argument rooted in Jewish scriptures (my preferred perspective)?

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Examining the context, Paul was referring to the bewitchers as the Christians in the camp of Peter (Cephas), James and John, who were with Jesus at the time he was crucified (according to the gospel myths).
Possibly...or possibly he is referring to something else. Nonetheless, it doesn't undermine the argument above.

Quote:
Philippians 2:8
Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.
What does Paul mean here? Being found in appearance as a man, in a spiritual sense?
Well, of course actual men are found in the appearance of men, but so are docetic spirits. I view this verse as a docetic influence. There are traces of docetism scattered throughout the Pauline corpus, but not enough to argue that docetism is the earliest layer.

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Paul had a theological agenda--many, in fact--and the way he advanced his various agenda is by weaving it into the crucifixion and resurrection of Jesus. It makes no difference whether he thought of the crucifixion as spiritual or symbolic.
This doesn't explain how/why the crucifixion negates the law or allows gentiles to be covered by the promise to Abraham. My explanation does, and it uses Paul's own words in a straightforward manner to do so.


...it's getting late. I'll try to get to the rest after some sleep.
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Old 03-02-2010, 11:56 PM   #9
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Awesome post! It's quite shocking to see it all laid out in black and white like that.
What is so awesome when all we have from ApostateAbe is half of the truth.

Jesus of the NT WAS A FULLY GOD AND FULLY MAN. A MYTH.

MERMAIDS are HUMAN and FISH. MYTHS.

Why don't ApostateAbe now post all the passages that clearly show Jesus was equal to God or the Son of God who was raised from the dead.

But, Jesus from heaven will answer ApostateAbe. The Jesus in heaven will tell him whose seed he is and what kind of star he is.

Listen to the heavenly Jesus.

The Pauline writer listened to the heavenly Jesus.


Revelations 22.16
Quote:
16I JESUS have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches.

I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star.
Jesus from heaven has spoken. He has an heavenly connection to David.


And now this is the Pauline write,r in black and white, with the other half of the story about Jesus the Creator.

Colossians 1:12-29 -
Quote:
12 Giving thanks unto the Father, which hath made us meet to be partakers of the inheritance of the saints in light:

13 Who hath delivered us from the power of darkness, and hath translated us into the kingdom of his dear Son:

14 In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins:

15 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:

16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth,
visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:

17 And he is before all things, and by him all things consist.
According to the Pauline writer Jesus was AWESOME.

Jesus was the Creator of all things.

The Pauline Jesus was the Creator and the Crucified who was raised from the dead.

ApostateAbe your Jesus is only a half of the Pauline Jesus, show us the heavenly side. The heavenly Jesus is in black and white, too.

Listen to Paul. He will tell you.

Quote:
Ga 1:1 -
Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead)......
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Old 03-03-2010, 02:19 AM   #10
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Originally Posted by Chaucer View Post
Awesome post! It's quite shocking to see it all laid out in black and white like that.

It's possible to think of Paul as responding to a symbolic crucifixion of a figure who is only transcendent. It's possible to imagine him cognizant only of aspects of "in the flesh" that relate to circumcision and to more general human suffering that's merely paralleled rather than directly experienced by a mystical compound Jesus existing only in the ether. It's possible to imagine him as viewing Jesus as strictly a visionary experience of the metaphysical, and real only in that. These are possible construals, but they're way down on the list after the far more plausible:-

Paul makes the occasional reference to a human Jesus through referencing his sayings in 1 Corinthians, and makes the distinction elsewhere between apostles versus members of Jesus's family, and speaks explicitly of him having suffered a typical Roman execution -- and references so much else that tallies with an account of a human Jesus -- for the plain reason that Paul really did conceive of Jesus as a human being who really lived on earth, whatever other qualities Paul may give Jesus in addition.

That's the earliest evidence we have as to the type of thing that was going on here (and we have it from "Paul"'s own words): we DON'T have direct evidence of any ancient conception of some Jesus suffering elsewhere than on earth; that's merely a far-fetched construal. We DO have positive evidence that AT LEAST Paul did conceive of Jesus as having a human biography. Combine that with the ABSENCE of any unequivocal evidence for any purely symbolic construction on Jesus's sufferings from any of the other earliest texts. Combine that with the distinct referenceS at crucial points in the earliest texts to people intimately acquainted with Jesus, including family members, who knew a human Jesus PERSONALLY. So: there is probable evidence OF a human Jesus, and there is nothing that logically necessitates that there be NO human Jesus (because we can very easily explain how metaphysical baggage was added to Jesus's biography, but we tie ourselves in knots if we try subtracting the plainly human features in the earliest extant texts that bear out the probable evidence we DO have elsewhere of an historical and purely human Jesus).

Chaucer
Ha ha, yes very funny

But I think you're missing the point. We don't have anything in Paul that shows anybody he's talking about knew a human Jesus personally. The only faintest glimmer of hope for historicists is the James/brother reference.

So: no internal evidence of a human being known personally by anybody mentioned.

And no external evidence of such a human being.

Yes, there's internal evidence of some belief in historicity - but of a divine being having gotten onto the earth at some point, clothed in flesh.

But that's not what the HJ case needs. At this point, it's undecidable whether this is a trace of a real person who's subsequently been mythologised, or simply myth. You need another kind of internal evidence, or external evidence, to help decide.

What's required is not earthly, fleshly-seeming, historical-seeming references in the myth, regarding the mythical entity (after all lots of myths have that), but references which give the game away that some sort of real, ordinary human being was involved.

Plus of course external evidence. It's only when you have some reason to believe there was a man, that the references in Paul crystallize as references to a real human being (albeit larded over with some mythical element).
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