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06-18-2010, 09:24 AM | #1 |
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The "relative silence" of Paul, when arguments from silence work, and when they don't
There is a fallacy that I think is common among both the scholarship and among us about accusations of "arguments from silence." Robert E. Van Voorst made this error when he indicted the mythicist argument about Paul's relative silence about Jesus, saying,
Arguments from silence about ancient times, here about the supposed lack of biblical or extrabiblical references to Jesus, are especially perilous.Perhaps he didn't mean it this way, but it is easily understood (or misunderstood) to imply that arguments from silence are always faulty. They are not. Silence of a certain topic within a set of evidence, in fact, almost always deserve an explanation. The fault is not the argument from silence, but the fault is the relative unlikelihood of the propositions chosen to explain such silence. We need to choose the best explanations for the silence, and it is typically not enough to use silence as evidence--unless you successfully argue why your explanation for the silence is better than the competing explanations. The relative silence of Paul about the human nature of Jesus is a good example. The phrase, "relative silence," is chosen because, in fact, Paul is not completely silent about the human nature of Jesus. Paul certainly thought of Jesus as spiritual in large part, but there is also a small handful of times when Paul seems to be explicit about Jesus being a physical human.
The mythicist explanation for both the tendency of silence and the breaks of the tendency: Paul thought of Jesus as merely spiritual, and the above list can have these explanations:
Paul believed that Jesus was human and spirit both, but he very much focused on the spirit nature of Jesus. Why? Paul never met Jesus, but he was a rival of the apostles who were reputedly disciples of Jesus (Galatians 1-4). His rivals had authority on the human nature of Jesus. However, Christians also believed that Jesus was spiritual, someone who rose from the dead and existed as a spirit, so Paul took the only available opportunity for apostolic authority--he preached as an authority on the spiritual nature of Jesus. He taught that he himself converted to Christianity, not through human communication, but through direct spiritual contact with Jesus (Acts 9). He encouraged a spiritual connection with Jesus and God (Romans 8), and he preached as though he gained his information from Jesus as a spirit (Romans 9:1). This avoids the sectarian problem of relying on the authority of Christian myth about Jesus' human sermons, because his rivals would have much more authority on that matter than Paul. Which explanation is better? I believe that the best explanation is the one that scores highest on the Argument to the Best Explanation. My historicist explanation has explanatory scope (#2 of ABE) and plausibility (#4 of ABE) with evidence reflected in the passages that I cited, without the need for many ad hoc explanations (#5). An ad hoc explanation is defined as: ...new suppositions about the past which are not already implied to some extent by existing beliefs.The ad hoc explanations for each individual break in the tendency of Paul's silence would not be a problem if they were more directly implied by the evidence. The mythicist hypothesis has excessive need for ad hoc explanations. Therefore, I believe my own explanation covers the evidence better. I do not know if the scholarship generally shares my explanation. If not, maybe they should. |
06-18-2010, 12:06 PM | #2 |
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I am by no means an expert on this, but it is interesting to me that Paul uses so many unique phrases re: Jesus compared to the Gospel writers, given that they are writing about the same person. No one in the gospels said that Jesus was born of a woman, or that he died according to the scriptures.
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06-18-2010, 12:06 PM | #3 |
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Abe, this is just getting annoying.
Your "explanation" - that Paul didn't want to credit his rivals - is not new. It is an ad hoc explanation fails to really explain Paul's silence. If you want to talk about Paul's silences, you need to address Doherty's 20 instances when Paul does not mention a historical Jesus or his teachings where he would be expected to mention them. And you need to address an additional silence that was brought up on this board - was Jesus married? How can Paul talk about marriage without either telling his followers to strive to be unmarried as Jesus was, or to strive to be unmarried in spite of the fact that Jesus was married? Your ad hoc explanation for Paul's silence on all but a few key points (some of which reflect an orthodox anti-Marcionite interpolator at work) - just fails. The best explanation, with the least amount of fudging and ad hoc speculation, is that Paul did not know anything about a historical Jesus - in spite of every opportunity to have met him or met people who did know him, if your interpretation is correct. |
06-18-2010, 12:12 PM | #4 |
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Way past annoying Toto.
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06-18-2010, 12:30 PM | #5 | |
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06-18-2010, 01:04 PM | #6 | |
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Abe - didn't you just claim that you had read Doherty's website? Evidently you didn't read it carefully enough. This is why this conversation is getting annoying. You can be as polite as you want and all all sorts of smilies, but when you keep repeating bad arguments . . .
The Sound of Silence There are actually more than "200 Missing References to the Gospel Jesus in the New Testament Epistles." Quote:
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06-18-2010, 01:38 PM | #7 | ||||||
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Gday,
According to Paul, who was the woman? Paul says Gentiles are the "seed of Abraham", a NON literal meaning. Quote:
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kap |
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06-18-2010, 01:47 PM | #8 | ||
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06-18-2010, 04:19 PM | #9 | |
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The silence is more about Paul actually knowing anyone that had any sort of non-spiritual encounter with Jesus -- without appealing to later gospel material. Which is especially damning because Paul argues a lot of the same points that Jesus argues in the gospel narratives, yet Paul doesn't quote him on those. Here are some places in Paul's letters where we would expect him to quote Jesus, but doesn't: Paul even argues that Jesus (nor any apostles) did no miracles, in opposition to the gospel narratives: Paul says that Jesus died, was buried, and rose on the third day "according to the scriptures", not because anyone saw such. Paul also says in Ephesians 4 that Jesus ascended to/descended from heaven using Psalm 68 as an argument, not because anyone saw such a thing. Paul says that "the mystery of Christ" was hidden for generations and recently revealed to him: Ephesians 3If we take all of this into account, it seems as though Christ was revealed in scripture, not due to anyone actually witnessing anything miraculous. This is how Paul can quote the LXX and claim or infer that it points to "Jesus" (as the non-titular "the Lord") in places like Rom 10.9-13; 1 Cor 1.31; or 2 Cor 10.15-18. You might argue that Ephesians is a contested letter, but then you're citing 1 Thes 2:14-16 as evidence though you're unable to comprehend that even if 1 Thess is considered an "authentic" Pauline epistle, this doesn't mean that it's 100% pristine and free of interpolations. Worse yet, this would count as another time where Paul makes the same argument that Jesus (or the gospel authors) makes in the gospel narratives (cf Mark 12:1-9). And then note that 1 Cor 11:23-30 is also contested. Either as an interpolation, or is argued to not an authentic quote of Jesus. Lastly, Paul doesn't mention meeting anyone who was any sort of "disciple" of Jesus. His Jesus didn't have any students, just those that are sent out (i.e. apostles). Saying that Paul met disciples is projecting later written "facts" from the gospel narratives into Paul's letters. The trend seems to be that as soon as Jesus is given "disciples" by the gospel narratives in the late 1st century, that Gnosticism (i.e. some concept of "secret teachings") begins to explode in the early 2nd. |
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06-18-2010, 06:34 PM | #10 | |
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Rom 15: 18 For I will not dare to speak of any of those things which Christ hath not wrought by me, to make the Gentiles obedient, by word and deed, 19 Through mighty signs and wonders, by the power of the Spirit of God; so that from Jerusalem, and round about unto Illyricum, I have fully preached the gospel of Christ. 1Cor12: 7 But the manifestation of the Spirit is given to each one for the profit of all: 8 for to one is given the word of wisdom through the Spirit, to another the word of knowledge through the same Spirit, 9 to another faith by the same Spirit, to another gifts of healings by *the same Spirit, 10 to another the working of miracles, to another prophecy, to another discerning of spirits, to another different kinds of tongues, to another the interpretation of tongues. 11 But one and the same Spirit works all these things, distributing to each one individually as He wills. 1 Cor 12: 27 Now you are the body of Christ, and members individually. 28 And God has appointed these in the church: first apostles, second prophets, third teachers, after that miracles, then gifts of healings, helps, administrations, varieties of tongues. 29 Are all apostles? Are all prophets? Are all teachers? Are all workers of miracles? 30 Do all have gifts of healings? Do all speak with tongues? Do all interpret? 31 But earnestly desire the best gifts. Gal3 5 Therefore He who supplies the Spirit to you and works miracles among you, does He do it by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? |
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