IBelieveInHymn

Jesus read the book of Isaiah to his disciples.

Isaiah was written in Hebrew.

Want more proof?

Sheshbazzar

Nowhere in any of my posts did I say anything about any 'building',
However the 'building' of THE Church is made up of Christian believers;
you know, That ONE whose believers are NOT 'forsaking the assembling of themselves together, as the manner of some.'

Deus Ex

Wasn't Isaiah translated into Greek in the Septuagint? It is my understanding that the evangelists often took their OT quotes from the Greek Septuagint.

Failte

I have a coworker who has been trying to convince me that The Flud was caused by the earth tipping violently on its axis so the water SLOSHED over the entirety of the land. The neptune thing is a new one. That might be in the major leagues.

gdeering

So all the disciples were fluent in Hebrew? No wonder Jesus was so desperate to get them, I'd walk over water to get fisherman who were fluent in Hebrew too when everyone else spoke Aramaic.


GD

Failte

This doesn't follow at all.

I have read the Iliad. In fact, I read it out loud to my husband during a very long car trip.

By your logic, I must be fluent in Greek.

In fact, I read it a fabulous translation by R. Fagles. I don''t speak Greek at all, although I recognize it when it is spoken.

I have also read Don Quixote, the Canterbury Tales, and can quote relatively easily from The Three Musketeers Again, I don't actually speak Spanish or Middle English or French.

Isaiah is considered to have been written by one (or possibly few) authors between 8 BCE and 4 BCE. There is a break in the middle that strongly suggests that a different author(s) picked up the narrative. It was written in a dialect (several, actually) of Hebrew.

Jesus was quoting from a document at least 400 years old, written in a language that was spoken by a bare handful of people by that time. Given the rarity of Hebrew as a spoken language in 1 CE, and the fact that most scholars conclude that Jesus, if he existed, would have spoken Aramaic, Greek, and possibly Latin, it is a far more likely conclusion that he was reading it in translation. The OT was clearly available in Greek by this time.

While it is, I suppose, possible that Jesus understood Hebrew, this is by no means "proof", especially considering that you are using it as supporting evidence for your interpretations of Greek gospels.

show_no_mercy

Wow...

Case in point: Isaiah 7:14 says "almah" in Hebrew, but in the LXX it says "parthenos". Almah in Hebrew means "young woman", whereas parthenos in Matthew's lifetime meant "virgin". If Matthew thought that Is. 7:14 said virgin, then he must have been reading from the LXX.

Sai

We had hoped for better reasoning than "i saw a meteor therefor god is real and communicates with me"

Certainly more proof.

Quote by Mark Twain: "If it is a Miracle, any sort of evidence will answer, but if it is a Fact, proof is necessary"

IBelieveInHymn

Yes it was. But to further my proof that Jesus spoke fluent Hebrew..

Jesus learned to read the Hebrew texts of the bible and he was adept at reasoning with the Torah sages in his day. At age 12 we find him sitting in the Temple discussing the finer points of the Torah with religious leaders. Luke 2:39. Such a discussion was undoubtedly spoken in Hebrew, and not Greek, Aramaic, or Latin

IBelieveInHymn

Jesus discussed the Torah with Religious Leaders. The only possible way to discuss the Torah was through the Hebrew language.