Chris Weimer

The LXX has to be well before the Dead Sea Scrolls, because by the DSS, the ghayin was lost, but when the LXX was made, it was still there. Compare the following from here:
Hebrew - בעל ,בלע×? ,עשתרות
Greek - ασταÏ?ωθ, βααλαμ, βααλ

But

Hebrew - פעור ,עמרה ,עזה
Greek - γαζαν, γομοÏ?Ï?ας, φογωÏ?

Does this seem plausible?

Anat

Is there any evidence for a graphical mark for ghain in earlier inscriptions? Maybe the same symbol served both phonemes, the way it is done with sin/shin (differentiated by having a left-hand or right-hand dot in later script, but not in early writing systems)?

Chris Weimer

That's a good possibility there, Anat. I had not considered that possibility. But no distinction is made currently, and no visibal distinction is made in DSS, not necessarily to imply that it didn't exist.