Clivedurdle

I'm reading Lynne Truss "Eats, Shoots and Leaves" and I am not sure if I should apologise for any punctuation or grammar errors in this!!

Lynne comments that punctuation is something that has evolved and is still evolving to help with the flow of writing, how to read it as an actor, to clarify meaning and similar. (Ooops - a list, probably should be semi-colons....).

There is a classic in Luke 23 v 43

Verily I say unto thee, this day thou shalt be with me in Paradise,

or should it be

Verily I say unto thee this day, thou shalt be with me in Paradise.

As I understand it the originals are not punctuated and for a considerable period Latin texts had no gaps between words either.

If we are continuously forced to read ancient texts from our own cultural understanding and assumptions, why do we not just say to the inerranists that we are sorry, what actually do you mean by the word of God?

Even italics are a fifteenth century invention!

Have any so called literal translations taken out all the punctuation? - it had not been invented when it was first written!

Toto

Another punctuation conumdrum:

Ps 14:1 The fool says in his heart,
"There is no God."
They are corrupt, their deeds are vile;
there is no one who does good.

perhaps should be:

The fool says in his heart,
"There is no God.
They are corrupt, their deeds are vile;
there is no one who does good. "

meaning the fool says that because the priests are corrupt and vile, that there is no God.