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Old 04-11-2008, 03:38 PM   #181
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The U.S. is a European power controled by European-Americans.


Read the Council of Foriegn Affairs internet Journal titled "America, A European Power." America is a European power.



And the United Nations was jointly founded by Europeans and Americans....headquatered in America on land donated by co-founder Rockefeller. The U.N. is an attempt to unite the world under the umbrella of the Western powers.
And by your own very loose usage of Empire continuance, the Roman Empire is still just an out growth of the Greek Empire. You have still not shown anything that would suggest a stronger linkage between the Roman Empire and power emanating out of Washington DC, than the very clear Greek cultural, societal, and political imprint upon the Roman Empire.

For the tenth time: By your own waxing from white supremacist sites about German dominance and other flaky places, you have no fourth empire as long as the US is just an outgrowth of the Romans. You are still trying to have your cake and eat it as well, without a shred of support…

Either way Frodo, I tire of hearing unsupported tales from what your ring tells you. So I will let others continue trying to get you to back up the tales you weave.
America is controled by the WASPS who are Anglo-Saxons who themselves are a Germanic tribe, who once controled the Roman empire and shaped Modern Europe.



You cannot seperate the Europeans from the Romans no matter how hard you try...and better yet where are your sources that does? Im tired of hearing the views of critics who often asks for sources and yet provides none.
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Old 04-11-2008, 03:44 PM   #182
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Greeks appeared in both the Roman and Greek empires. The Roman empire is only different because it also included the Latins and Nordic tribes as well as its extended territory into Europe.
1. Laughably incorrect.

2. The Greek empire also included non-Greeks. Therefore both empires are the same in that they were not confined to the nationalities of their originators.
Did they include the Nordic tribes of celts and Germanic tribes. Did the extend into Europe.




And im still waiting for your sources.


And seeing that you were wrong about Greece's rule in Europe and Romes recruitment of Germanic soldiers, elementary history, its amazing how you continue to put yourself into the position of grading ones history.
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Old 04-11-2008, 03:46 PM   #183
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Daniel said the KINGDOM (Babylon, if the Persians was a single monarchy why divide it with the Medes?) was divided between the Medes and Persians not that the Medes and Persians were divided. If they were divided than how can their kingdom stand? If this Persian empire was a single Monarchy Mede would not even be mention....it would be Persian pure and simple.
If Medo-Persia was one kingdom, why would Babylon be divided? (once again assuming, for the sake of argument, that any of this at all is historically accurate.)

Quote:
Greeks appeared in both the Roman and Greek empires. The Roman empire is only different because it also included the Latins and Nordic tribes as well as its extended territory into Europe.
The Hellenic empire consisted of many non-Greeks. Many of them in positions of power and in Alexander's army -- just like non-Italians were in positions of power and filled the ranks of the Roman armies.

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Originally Posted by sugarhitman
1.Babylon
2.Medo-Persia
3. Greece
4. Rome
4. Divided Rome (Modern Europe)
This is hogwash. Stop with the special pleading.
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Old 04-11-2008, 03:50 PM   #184
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America is controled by the WASPS who are Anglo-Saxons
You seem to forget all the Irish and Italians - you know, Kennedys, Clintons, Giulianis, Reagans, etc.

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who themselves are a Germanic tribe, who once controled the Roman empire and shaped Modern Europe.
1. More cartoons as history? When did the Germanic tribes control the Roman Empire?

2. You have a 3rd grade understanding of European history. Modern Europe was just as much shaped by the Italic tribes and by the transmission of technology and commerce from Asia and the Mideast.

Quote:
You cannot seperate the Europeans from the Romans no matter how hard you try
Sure we can. That's what history says, after all. You having problems making history fit your religion again?
ROFLMAOROFLMAOROFLMAOROFLMAOROFLMAO

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...and better yet where are your sources that does? Im tired of hearing the views of critics
Nobody cares what you are tired of. Perhaps if you actually supported your claims with sources, then you wouldn't get so tuckered out from running away and ducking.

:rolling::rolling::rolling::rolling::rolling::roll ing:


Quote:
who often asks for sources and yet provides none.
1. We aren't required to provide sources. We don't have to prove that your argument wrong; you have to prove that it's right.

2. This thread is STUFFED with sources that contradict your homemade history. You simply ignored all the legitimate sources in favor of white power websites and Iranian blogs.
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Old 04-11-2008, 03:55 PM   #185
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Originally Posted by Sheshonq View Post

1. Laughably incorrect.

2. The Greek empire also included non-Greeks. Therefore both empires are the same in that they were not confined to the nationalities of their originators.
Did they include the Nordic tribes of celts
1. You haven't proven that the Celts were Nordic in the first place, remember?
2. There were Celts in the Greek empire.

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and Germanic tribes.
They didn't have to.

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Did the extend into Europe.
yes.


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And im still waiting for your sources.
As soon as you support your claims, you'll be in a position to ask others for sources. Not until then.

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And seeing that you were wrong about Greece's rule in Europe and Romes recruitment of Germanic soldiers,
I was not wrong about either one. As Sitamun noted in his post, you deliberately left out what I said. Nice try, but you're outmatched here.
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Old 04-11-2008, 03:58 PM   #186
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Im tired of hearing the views of critics who often asks for sources and yet provides none.
There is a library of information in this thread that you are willingly ignoring. It's not our job to provide sources for you to use. You are the one making outrageous claims -- it's your burden of proof.
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Old 04-11-2008, 04:01 PM   #187
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www.livius.org-Cyrus Says Medes and Persians a Dual Monarchy-Non-christian site?
No, it does not. It says that Cyrus had a personal monarchy that was dual. Clearly you don't understand the difference.

Besides, you seem to mistakenly believe that ruling over two countries means that they are equals, or that both countries participate in the governance. Maybe you should review the history of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, to see if all the players in that arrangement have dual, or equal, standing.


It does? Where? You know that isn't a historical source anyhow, right? It's a group of Iranians posting on the web?


It does? Where?

Quote:
There are many more who back up my arguement.
No, there aren't.
"Cyrus seems to have united Persia and Media in a personal union; it was therefore a dual Monarchy."

"Expressions like 'king of Persia' and the 'Median kingdom' are a bit misleading. The Medes and the Persians were coalitions of Iranian nomad tribes...."

Cyrus became the new ruler of the empire of PERSIANS AND MEDES."



You were saying?



MEDO-PERSIA is an accurate title dont you think? And in Daniel the Persians are the dominant power in the kingdom of the MEDES AND PERSIANS... So......
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Old 04-11-2008, 04:01 PM   #188
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Im tired of hearing the views of critics who often asks for sources and yet provides none.
There is a library of information in this thread that you are willingly ignoring.
If it's not a homemade web page that he can google, then he doesn't consider it a source.

Actually picking up a BOOK - and not relying on google - would probably be enough to kill him.
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Old 04-11-2008, 04:04 PM   #189
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[QUOTE=sugarhitman;5268080]
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Originally Posted by Sheshonq View Post
No, it does not. It says that Cyrus had a personal monarchy that was dual. Clearly you don't understand the difference.

Besides, you seem to mistakenly believe that ruling over two countries means that they are equals, or that both countries participate in the governance. Maybe you should review the history of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, to see if all the players in that arrangement have dual, or equal, standing.


It does? Where? You know that isn't a historical source anyhow, right? It's a group of Iranians posting on the web?


It does? Where?


No, there aren't.
Quote:
"Cyrus seems to have united Persia and Media in a personal union; it was therefore a dual Monarchy."
Already addressed above. You missed the point of the comment.

Quote:
"Expressions like 'king of Persia' and the 'Median kingdom' are a bit misleading. The Medes and the Persians were coalitions of Iranian nomad tribes...."
That's how they started. That is not how they ended up. You are about 70 years off in history; I already gave the reference for when this dual monarchy ended. So get off your lazy ass and go find it.

Moreover - and as I have already noted - Herodotus gets the information about Medes vs. Persians wrong, as a result of geographic proximity.

Quote:
Cyrus became the new ruler of the empire of PERSIANS AND MEDES."
From your homemade Persian blog? Not a source.

Quote:
You were saying?
I was saying that you were wrong.
I'm still saying it.
And I'm correct to do so.


Quote:
MEDO-PERSIA is an accurate title dont you think?
No. Not unless you think that "Ireland-England" is an accurate title for the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.
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Old 04-11-2008, 04:26 PM   #190
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"Cyrus seems to have united Persia and Media in a personal union; it was therefore a dual Monarchy."
You pulled this sentence out of context and completely missed the point of it.

The next line: "Taking over the loosely organized Median empire also implied taking over several subject countries."

Taking something over is alot more aggressive than uniting -- the Medes were subjects of the Persians, after all, not kinsman. The point of the paragraph you so blatantly quoted out of context is this: once the Persians took over the Medes, their kingdom was no more. It was not Medo-Persia. It was Persia. Historians do not talk about Medo-Persia, they talk about the Achaemenid Persian empire.

The Median empire was a seperate state to which Persia, another seperate state, payed tribute. Persia was then rallied and conquered Media -- ending it's existence -- not uniting the two.


Quote:
"Expressions like 'king of Persia' and the 'Median kingdom' are a bit misleading. The Medes and the Persians were coalitions of Iranian nomad tribes...."
This just proves that peoples and borders shifted all the time; making it that much harder to consider them all one kingdom -- not to mention the fact that this is several decades off from the time period being discussed.

Quote:
Cyrus became the new ruler of the empire of PERSIANS AND MEDES."
If we read this sentence in context, we can see that the only reason this selection of words was used is because these were the only two states being discussed. If you wanted to be more specific, Cyrus was the emperor of Persia, Media, Armenia, Parthia, Sagartia, etc. This collective empire is considered the Achaemenid Persian empire. NOT the Medo-Persian empire. The kingdom of Media, as an independent state, ended with Cyrus' conquest.
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