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Old 09-21-2006, 06:44 AM   #1
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Default How could Jesus have been Jewish if he was conceived by the Holy Spirit?

I look forward to reading comments from readers.
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Old 09-21-2006, 06:49 AM   #2
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Because the holy spirit is Jewish. Duh.

Actually, I have an idea of what a Christian might say to this:

Now, when god impregnated Mary, he isn't physical, so obviously, he had to either create sperm inside of Mary or change one of Mary's eggs so that it had all of the necessary genetic material.

So, god simply chose alleles that are typical of a Jewish man. So if Jesus had all Jew-genes, who's to say he wasn't Jewish?
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Old 09-21-2006, 07:17 AM   #3
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I believe one is considered Jewish if their mother is/was Jewish. IE: It's passed maternally, not paternally.
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Old 09-21-2006, 10:56 AM   #4
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That's correct. According to Jewish law, a person is born Jewish if and only if their mother is Jewish. The father has nothing to do with it.
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Old 09-21-2006, 11:01 AM   #5
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LadyShea and ZikZak seem to me to have this question well and satifactorily answered.

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Old 09-21-2006, 09:50 PM   #6
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wow, that's a first... a womans power / status trumping those of the christian god.
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Old 09-21-2006, 10:08 PM   #7
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Greetings all,

Yes,
modern Jews trace Jewishness through the mother.

No,
ancient Jews did not (have a look at the genealogies - all male, with some rare exceptions.)


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Old 09-21-2006, 10:10 PM   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Iasion View Post
Yes,
modern Jews trace Jewishness through the mother.

No,
ancient Jews did not (have a look at the genealogies - all male, with some rare exceptions.)
IIRC, the switch to a matrilineal system dates back to the 2nd century CE.

Stephen
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Old 09-21-2006, 10:34 PM   #9
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Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
Quote:
Originally Posted by Iasion
Yes,
modern Jews trace Jewishness through the mother.

No,
ancient Jews did not (have a look at the genealogies - all male, with some rare exceptions.)
IIRC, the switch to a matrilineal system dates back to the 2nd century CE.

Stephen
I'm pretty sure that's correct. The Mishnah in any case contains the earliest unequivocal confirmation of the practice. Then there's the question of whether Acts 16:1ff. indicate its existence even as far back as century I.

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Old 09-22-2006, 10:41 AM   #10
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic View Post
I look forward to reading comments from readers.

I haven't seen Jews suggest that there is any problem with the Jewish identity of Jesus. What they do say, however, is that Jesus couldn't have had Davidic lineage, because that kind of thing goes ONLY through the biological father. This is used as an argument that Jesus couldn't have been the Messiah.
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