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11-16-2005, 07:57 PM | #11 | |
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"Revelations 11:18 (in the Bible) is not meaningless or gibberish, since there's another verse in the Bible that I interpret to mean that nothing in the Bible is meaningless or gibberish. Furthermore, I can't understand why that is completely circular reasoning." I actually strongly suspect that rhutchin didn't mean it as the joke that it turned out to be. In fact, so often the characterization of "The Bible is true, because the Bible says it's true" is a strawman argument which is rarely advanced even by conservative fundamentalists, but every once in a while someone comes along and puts it forward as if it actually made sense. WMD |
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11-16-2005, 08:12 PM | #12 | ||||||
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The proposition is "Nothing in the Bible is meaningless or gibberish." The circular reasoning happens when an attempt is made to support the proposition with "Here's a verse in the Bible that says that everything in the Bible is God-inspired" (with an assumed special pleading of "God would never inspire anything meaningless or gibberish") rather than "Earlier, I said that nothing in the Bible is meaningless or gibberish, therefore, Q.E.D." Either way, though, it's a clear logical fallacy. We will now spend the next several hundred posts attempting to convince rhutchin that it is, indeed, a logical fallacy. Quote:
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11-16-2005, 08:41 PM | #13 | |
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But it doesn't say which writings. What makes you infallible in interpreting that every writing = Bible? |
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11-16-2005, 08:56 PM | #14 | |
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11-17-2005, 03:44 AM | #15 | |
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Thank you, Thank you, Thank you. |
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11-17-2005, 04:07 AM | #16 | ||
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Note that I put this after my amused comment: Quote:
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11-17-2005, 04:08 AM | #17 | |
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Beyond those passages that explicitly state, "Thus saith the Lord..." there are passages that implicitely imply that the writer is relaying that which God has given to him. For example, Paul says, "Whereunto I am ordained a preacher, and an apostle, (I speak the truth in Christ, and lie not) a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and verity." (1 Timothy 2:7) Beyond that we have the historical documents--Genesis, Samuel, Kings, etc. We can include these among those Scriptures to which Paul refers as being given by inspiration of God. Your objection here seems to be that the inclusion of Paul's letter in the Bible creates a situation where you have circular logic or some other problem. Any problem exists only if that which Paul wrote in his letter to Timothy is not true. If it is true, then there is no problem. I guess one's presupposition of the truth of that which Paul wrote dictates whether one believes that there is a problem. |
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11-17-2005, 04:16 AM | #18 | |
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11-17-2005, 04:21 AM | #19 |
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rhutchin, what is your take on Jonah 3, verses 9 & 10, if one wishes to consider the trustworthiness of God (in terms of believing in the steadfastness of).
Jonah 3:9 "Who knows? God may relent and change his mind; he may turn from his fierce anger, so that we do not perish." Jonah 3:10 "When God saw what they did, how they turned from their evil ways, God changed his mind" |
11-17-2005, 07:01 AM | #20 |
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rhutchin, you should know that Paul didn't write the pastoral epistles (1st and 2nd Timothy and Titus) so those words came from some later writer.
You also cannot make the assumption that every line that starts with "Thus saith the lord..." means anything other than someone wrote those words. For example: "Thus saith the lord, rhutchin is mistaken in his assertions." There, now that god has revealed to me that you are mistaken which you, by your own admission, must take as a revelation from god, I can assume that you will abandon your viewpoint. I mean, if a guy could write that 2000 years ago and you believe it surely the same rules hold true now, right? Julian |
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