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Old 11-16-2005, 07:57 PM   #11
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Originally Posted by rhutchin
Yes. The rule of thumb is this: Nothing in the Bible is meaningless or gibberish.

"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable..." (2 Timothy 3:16)
Paraphrased:

"Revelations 11:18 (in the Bible) is not meaningless or gibberish, since there's another verse in the Bible that I interpret to mean that nothing in the Bible is meaningless or gibberish. Furthermore, I can't understand why that is completely circular reasoning."

I actually strongly suspect that rhutchin didn't mean it as the joke that it turned out to be. In fact, so often the characterization of "The Bible is true, because the Bible says it's true" is a strawman argument which is rarely advanced even by conservative fundamentalists, but every once in a while someone comes along and puts it forward as if it actually made sense.

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Old 11-16-2005, 08:12 PM   #12
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Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
Unlike some of these others who merely make mock of you, I will attempt to explain to you why they consider your answer to be amusing.
Well, there's another verse in the Bible which says what will happen to mockers and scoffers - presumably, that verse too is not "meaningless or gibberish."

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You say that, "Nothing in the Bible is meaningless or gibberish."

To prove that point, you quote the bible which says sustantially that nothing in the bible is meaningless or gibberish.
The verse he came up with doesn't really claim that - rather, it's a statement that all Scripture comes from God's inspiration, and is profitable for teaching and rebuking and so forth. Technically, that does not declare that everything in the Bible isn't meaningless or gibberish. It requires a special pleading logical fallacy to claim that it isn't meaningless or gibberish because God inspired it, and God gets exempted from being meaningless or gibberish because God is God.

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Sit back and think about this for a moment.
"Sometimes I sits and thinks, and other times I just sits." (Anonymous)

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Now that you've had a chance to think about it, let me see if I can explain more fully what you did that was so amusing to the heartless.
Heartless? It's funny because it's true! (that there are people out there who actually buy into the circular reasoning, and are perplexed and nonplussed when others don't accept it as readily as they have.)

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You can't prove that a given statement is true by simply quoting that statement which asserts that it is true.
It's close enough to be a correct characterization, but it's not begging the question by assuming the premise.

The proposition is "Nothing in the Bible is meaningless or gibberish."

The circular reasoning happens when an attempt is made to support the proposition with "Here's a verse in the Bible that says that everything in the Bible is God-inspired" (with an assumed special pleading of "God would never inspire anything meaningless or gibberish") rather than "Earlier, I said that nothing in the Bible is meaningless or gibberish, therefore, Q.E.D."

Either way, though, it's a clear logical fallacy. We will now spend the next several hundred posts attempting to convince rhutchin that it is, indeed, a logical fallacy.

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If you still don't see what went wrong, I'll try to explain more fully.
To what end? I've been explaining the incompatibility of omniscience and free will for dozens and dozens of posts, to no avail.

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Old 11-16-2005, 08:41 PM   #13
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Originally Posted by rhutchin
"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable..." (2 Timothy 3:16)
Actually, it doesn't say that at all! It clearly says, "Every writing [is] Godbreathed, and [is] useful for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness."

But it doesn't say which writings. What makes you infallible in interpreting that every writing = Bible?
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Old 11-16-2005, 08:56 PM   #14
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Originally Posted by Wayne Delia

To what end? I've been explaining the incompatibility of omniscience and free will for dozens and dozens of posts, to no avail.
While I've long felt that atheists were more moral than most believers, I'm now also becoming convinced that they are a lot more patient, too.
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Old 11-17-2005, 03:44 AM   #15
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Originally Posted by Julian
:rolling:

rhutchin, thank you. That was classic.
Julian and JPD,

Thank you, Thank you, Thank you.
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Old 11-17-2005, 04:07 AM   #16
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Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
Now that you've had a chance to think about it, let me see if I can explain more fully what you did that was so amusing to the heartless.
Sorry but you are completely out of touch here. The laughter wasn't menacing or spiteful in any way and I think that rhutchin has the intelligence to understand why we find it so amusing. He hardly needs it spelling out.

Note that I put this after my amused comment:

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Originally Posted by JPD
But seriously, are you aware of the inadequacies of circular logic?
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Old 11-17-2005, 04:08 AM   #17
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Quote:
Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
Unlike some of these others who merely make mock of you, I will attempt to explain to you why they consider your answer to be amusing.

You say that, "Nothing in the Bible is meaningless or gibberish."

To prove that point, you quote the bible which says sustantially that nothing in the bible is meaningless or gibberish.

Sit back and think about this for a moment.

////////

Now that you've had a chance to think about it, let me see if I can explain more fully what you did that was so amusing to the heartless.

You can't prove that a given statement is true by simply quoting that statement which asserts that it is true.

If you still don't see what went wrong, I'll try to explain more fully.
When I say that nothing in the Bible is meaningless or jibberish, it is a conclusion that begins with consideration of those pasages that say something in the order of-- "Thus saith the Lord..." My conclusion is that nothing attributed to God (and by extension to Christ) is meaningless or gibberish. Paul (in his letter to Timothy) takes this one step further and says that everything God says is profitable in some manner. Your objection here, I think, is that we have men like Moses, Solomon, Isaiah, Matthew, etc. attributing that which they wrote to God and why should we believe them. No one has to believe them (unless these men are telling the truth).

Beyond those passages that explicitly state, "Thus saith the Lord..." there are passages that implicitely imply that the writer is relaying that which God has given to him. For example, Paul says, "Whereunto I am ordained a preacher, and an apostle, (I speak the truth in Christ, and lie not) a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and verity." (1 Timothy 2:7) Beyond that we have the historical documents--Genesis, Samuel, Kings, etc. We can include these among those Scriptures to which Paul refers as being given by inspiration of God. Your objection here seems to be that the inclusion of Paul's letter in the Bible creates a situation where you have circular logic or some other problem. Any problem exists only if that which Paul wrote in his letter to Timothy is not true. If it is true, then there is no problem. I guess one's presupposition of the truth of that which Paul wrote dictates whether one believes that there is a problem.
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Old 11-17-2005, 04:16 AM   #18
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Actually, it doesn't say that at all! It clearly says, "Every writing [is] Godbreathed, and [is] useful for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness."

But it doesn't say which writings. What makes you infallible in interpreting that every writing = Bible?
That's a good point. All we need then are rules to identify the "writings" to which Paul refers. We need to identify the "Holy Scriptures" (Holy writings?) to which Paul referred in the previous verse. I think an argument can be made that Paul was referring to the OT. The issue, then, is to determine whether the NT writings (which reflect that which Christ said) should also be considered Scripture.
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Old 11-17-2005, 04:21 AM   #19
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rhutchin, what is your take on Jonah 3, verses 9 & 10, if one wishes to consider the trustworthiness of God (in terms of believing in the steadfastness of).

Jonah 3:9 "Who knows? God may relent and change his mind; he may turn from his fierce anger, so that we do not perish."

Jonah 3:10 "When God saw what they did, how they turned from their evil ways, God changed his mind"
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Old 11-17-2005, 07:01 AM   #20
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rhutchin, you should know that Paul didn't write the pastoral epistles (1st and 2nd Timothy and Titus) so those words came from some later writer.

You also cannot make the assumption that every line that starts with "Thus saith the lord..." means anything other than someone wrote those words.

For example:

"Thus saith the lord, rhutchin is mistaken in his assertions."

There, now that god has revealed to me that you are mistaken which you, by your own admission, must take as a revelation from god, I can assume that you will abandon your viewpoint. I mean, if a guy could write that 2000 years ago and you believe it surely the same rules hold true now, right?

Julian
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