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Old 12-29-2005, 01:48 PM   #61
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13

No? You seemed to think there was some history in the Temple Disruption scene. If this is your actual position, then you have no basis to claim that they contain any and our discussion is over.
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You are taking my comment out of context. I do think that the Temple disruption story is historical. I was simply pointing out that AT THAT POINT in my remarks I was concerned with making another point.
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Old 12-29-2005, 02:03 PM   #62
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Default 100% Proof Positive-No Doubt

100% Proof Positive -No Doubt
That title is to get your attention.
But I have great proof that the Gospels were edited.

In the Gospel of Matthew, Jesus uses the expression "the Kingdom of Heaven" about 30 times. But Jesus NEVER says "the Kingdom of Heaven" in any of the other Gospels. In Mark, Luke, and John's Gospels, Jesus says "the Kingdom of God".
So now, when Jesus spoke to his apostles, disciples, etc, concerning the "Kingdom" did he actually say "Kingdom of HEAVEN" or did he actually say "Kingdom of GOD"?
If you think about this you will realize that Jesus' words were definitely edited concerning about whether he said "Kingdom of Heaven" or "Kingdom of God".
Now this may be a small point. But if the Gospel writers felt free to edit the actual utterances of Jesus, in this regard, how do we know if they didn't edit other words, verses, paragraphs, etc.....or maybe their imaginations just ran wild and they invented miracles.
"""He that is faithful in that which is least is faithful also in much: and he that is unjust in the least is unjust also in much."""Luke 16:10

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Old 12-29-2005, 02:12 PM   #63
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Well you have me there. I do not know the passage from Josephus that you are referring to here. Can you tell me where it is? Thanks.
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NOW after the death of Herod, king of Chalcis, Claudius set Agrippa, the son of Agrippa, over his uncle's kingdom, while Cumanus took upon him the office of procurator of the rest, which was a Roman province, and therein he succeeded Alexander; under which Cureanus began the troubles, and the Jews' ruin came on; for when the multitude were come together to Jerusalem, to the feast of unleavened bread, and a Roman cohort stood over the cloisters of the temple, (for they always were armed, and kept guard at the festivals, to prevent any innovation which the multitude thus gathered together might make,)...
Jewish Wars II, XII, 1
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Old 12-30-2005, 07:53 AM   #64
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The money-changers were outside the Temple proper. That was the whole point of their existence, after all. You are simply ignoring what Josephus has told us and I find that disingenuous. Extra guards were placed around the area outside the Temple specifically to prevent or respond to incidents just like the one in the Gospel story!

Pilate once placed disguised soldiers among protesting Jews and then had them whip out cudgels to beat people. A stampede resulted and many people were trampled to death. So, no, I do not consider your objection above to be credible. You really should read what Josephus has to say about Pilate and his concern for the Jews under his charge.
I have read the passage you refer to, which refers to an incident under another prefect over a decade later. We don't know do we, when the Romans put these security measures into operation, so we don't know for sure that the same arrangements applied under Pilate, although common sense would suggest they were. The wording "stood over the cloisters of the temple" are open to interpretation, either that the soldiers were on the temple ramparts themselves, or on the ramparts of the fortress next door, from where they presumably had a good overview of things. The moneychangers were located in the Court of the Gentiles, which was within the temple complex. It is possible that there were soldiers in the CofG itself, but that is not what the wording of the passage indicates. The Cof G was a large area, andno doubt very busy and noisy. It may have taken some time for soldiers on any ramparts to have noticed one man in particular. If you've ever been in an Eastern market you will know what I mean. Even if they had noticed, and apprehended Jesus, it is more likely he would have been arrested, and if any arresting was done, it would have probably been Caiaphas own temple guard that did it.

I don't think the passage comes close to supporting your contention that Jesus would have been cut down on the spot.
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Old 12-30-2005, 08:18 AM   #65
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
The Gospels.

"Now the chief priests and the whole Council kept trying to obtain testimony against Jesus to put Him to death, and they were not finding any. For many were giving false testimony against Him, but their testimony was not consistent. Some stood up and began to give false testimony against Him, saying, "We heard Him say, 'I will destroy this temple made with hands, and in three days I will build another made without hands.'" Not even in this respect was their testimony consistent." (Mk 14:55-59, NASB)

No, as we can clearly see above, they lied about this. What really got them upset was his claim to be Christ:

"But He kept silent and did not answer Again the high priest was questioning Him, and saying to Him, "Are You the Christ, the Son of the Blessed One?" And Jesus said, "I am; and you shall see THE SON OF MAN SITTING AT THE RIGHT HAND OF POWER, and COMING WITH THE CLOUDS OF HEAVEN." (Mk 14:61-62, NASB)
If you read the gospel accounts, Jesus did predict the destruction of the temple. Mark 13:1, Matthew 24:1,2, Luke 21:6. Also see John 2:17 - 21. The gospels tell us that Jesus spent most of his last week teaching in the temple, so it was not overturning the moneychangers tables that triggered his arrest, although it would have brought him to the attention of Caiaphas' spies.

The false witnesses were not entirely making up the accustation. Their falsehood lay in making Jesus, rather than God, the agent of destruction. Any kind of threat to the temple would have upset Caiaphas and his friends. It was their source of livelihood, and a very lucrative one too. The charge of blasphemy was a means to an end.

Given that the sources for Jewish belief come from a later time, I'm not sure that we can say with exactitude what would have warranted a charge of blasphemy at the time of Jesus.
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Old 12-30-2005, 11:35 AM   #66
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Originally Posted by mikem
I have read the passage you refer to, which refers to an incident under another prefect over a decade later.
This attempt to avoid the evidence would be more credible had Josephus stated that this was the first time anyone had added extra guards but he does not. Taken along with the other descriptions of Pilate's dealings with the Jews, this rather lame apologetic is simply not credible. He was clearly dealing with an angry group during his "rule" so this precaution would only have been common sense as you admit.

I probably should have added that, in the parallel passage from War (Bk 2, Ch 12), Josephus clearly states that "and this was no more than what the former procurators of Judea did at such festivals". Andrew Criddle offers you what, IMO, is an apologetic straw to grasp:

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It might be argued that this only tells us that such guards went back to the restoration of Roman direct rule after the death of Herod Agrippa and are not necessarily evidence for the situation under Pontius Pilate 10 or more years before, but only for the time of Fadus and Alexander the governors between the death of Herod and Cumanus becoming governor.
Personally, I think this runs contrary to common sense and, given the parallel passage, we are entirely justified to assume that extra guards began with the very first Passover subsequent to Pilate taking control. This is only made more likely by the disruption and anger generated by the census he conducted upon taking over.

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The wording "stood over the cloisters of the temple" are open to interpretation, either that the soldiers were on the temple ramparts themselves, or on the ramparts of the fortress next door, from where they presumably had a good overview of things.
War has "in the cloisters" but quibbling over the actual position ignores the fact that they would have done no good if they could not observe and respond immediately.

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I don't think the passage comes close to supporting your contention that Jesus would have been cut down on the spot.
That's fine. It is more than adequate, however, to support my primary conclusion regarding the lack of historical credibility for the scene.

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The gospels tell us that Jesus spent most of his last week teaching in the temple, so it was not overturning the moneychangers tables that triggered his arrest, although it would have brought him to the attention of Caiaphas' spies.
Well, the Synoptics tell us this but not John. On what basis did you decide to accept their version over John's?

Regardless, this entirely ignores the point that such a disruption would have triggered an arrest if not immediate execution.


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The false witnesses were not entirely making up the accustation.
I referred to the testimony as false. You asked why I did so. I provided the specific Gospel passage in which the testimony is called false. Your complaint here is with the author of the story, not me.

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Given that the sources for Jewish belief come from a later time, I'm not sure that we can say with exactitude what would have warranted a charge of blasphemy at the time of Jesus.
Are you kidding? You seriously want to advance the argument that, at some point in the history of Judaism, claiming to be the Messiah was considered blasphemy? Seems entirely absurd to me but I remain open to evidence.
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Old 12-30-2005, 04:45 PM   #67
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Suprising question. Writing in the same time period, in the same language, about the same country. With similar cultural background. Detailed analysis of his precise polis word usage done, even in a context outside of NT text usage.

Should be a good indication of word usage. What authors would you claim as more relevant for vocabularly understanding of an NT word like polis.

Shalom,
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Yes, but all of those claims except "time" and "language" are wrong.

At the moment, I have no idea who would be relevant to the usages in Matt and Luke. Since the authors are probably both gentiles, and it is not clear where and when they were writing from.
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Old 12-30-2005, 04:50 PM   #68
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No, as we can clearly see above, they lied about this. What really got them upset was his claim to be Christ:

"But He kept silent and did not answer Again the high priest was questioning Him, and saying to Him, "Are You the Christ, the Son of the Blessed One?" And Jesus said, "I am; and you shall see THE SON OF MAN SITTING AT THE RIGHT HAND OF POWER, and COMING WITH THE CLOUDS OF HEAVEN." (Mk 14:61-62, NASB)
Actually, that wouldn't have got them upset either, as it was not blasphemy to claim to be, or to be identified as, the messiah. Additionally, Fowler has argued that the answer "I am" are the only words of Jesus, and the rest is an authorial aside to the reader. Others have argued that it is a later interpolation. From my commentary:

Note that in Matthew and Luke Jesus deflects the question of his identity, refusing to answer directly (Mt 26:64 ="Yes, it is as you say," Lk 22:67="If I tell you, you will not believe me, and if I asked you, you would not answer." ). Based on this agreement, Price (2003) speculates that our current version of Mark is incorrect. Sure enough, in certain manuscripts of Mark at 14:62 Jesus simply says: "You say" without the "Son of Man" commentary (p281-2). Grant (1963) notes:
  • According to Alexandrian and 'Western' manuscripts, Jesus said, 'I am,' and went on to predict the coming of the Son of Man on the clouds of heaven (14:61-2). Several questions arise here. (1) Caesarean manuscripts agree with Origen that the answer was less direct; they read, 'You have said that I am.' Do they preserve Mark's original reading, reflected in different ways in Matthew 26:64 and Luke 22:67-71? Or has the text of Mark been influenced by the later gospels?

However, David Hindley (2004) speculates that the writer of Mark may be engaged in a bit of sly word play. The Gospel of Mark is written in Greek. However, anyone familiar with Jewish scripture would immediately realize what "I am" meant in Hebrew: YHWH. And it is blasphemy to utter the name of God.
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Old 12-31-2005, 05:08 AM   #69
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13

War has "in the cloisters" but quibbling over the actual position ignores the fact that they would have done no good if they could not observe and respond immediately.

Well, the Synoptics tell us this but not John. On what basis did you decide to accept their version over John's?

Regardless, this entirely ignores the point that such a disruption would have triggered an arrest if not immediate execution.

Are you kidding? You seriously want to advance the argument that, at some point in the history of Judaism, claiming to be the Messiah was considered blasphemy? Seems entirely absurd to me but I remain open to evidence.
No, it definitely says "over the cloisters", not "in the cloisters", at least in the translation I have read. The temple was under the jurisdiction of the High Priest, he had his own temple guard to deal with any problems within the temple precincts. The syrian cohort brought in were stationed at the fortress, and no doubt could respond if required to. The question is why would they do so for one man, when the temple guard are in the immediate vicinity? Another point to consider is that the moneychangers quarter may well have been under cover, directly beneath Caiaphas official quarters, so only people on the same level would have been aware of what was going on. However I am recalling that from memory (of reading it, not being there I hasten to add!) so I will try and find the source for that information, unless anyone else reading this thread knows the source?

John does record that Jesus spent his last week in Jerusalem, and although he does not say that Jesus spent most of his time in the temple, that does not contradict what the synoptics tell us on that head. I take your point that moving the temple scene from the end to the beginning of Jesus' ministry is fairly major, but then John does a lot of things very differently from the synoptics, which is why it is not a synoptic gospel. Having already dealt with that scene to introduce his readers to the believer/nonbeliever conflict, which is one of his main motifs, he does not need to deal with it again. Of all the gospels, John is most obviously theological in intent, and although historical elements are present, it is the synoptics that contain most claims of a historical nature, and a discernible outline of events, and so form the basis for historical study.

Yes, the blasphemy charge. I agree with you that it would not have been blasphemy to claim to be the Messiah, and perhaps I should have made myself a little clearer. I take it that the gospels intend us to understand that Jesus claimed to be the Messiah. This was not blasphemous. However, according to Mark, Jesus spoke of the "son of man sitting at the right hand of power" Jesus aserts that there are two figures sitting side by side in the heavenly world, God and a man. This would have been an offence to Jewish monotheism, and might be construed as blasphemy.

I have not forgotten the issue of criteria for historical credibility, and I will get back to that. Oh, and I'm otherwise engaged tomorrow, so Happy New Year for tomorrow.
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Old 12-31-2005, 05:35 AM   #70
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However, according to Mark, Jesus spoke of the "son of man sitting at the right hand of power" Jesus aserts that there are two figures sitting side by side in the heavenly world, God and a man. This would have been an offence to Jewish monotheism, and might be construed as blasphemy.
And yet, there was a "two powers in heaven" belief in Judaism of the period. It crops out in the OT in several places, especially in Ps 110, a favorite of early Christianity. There are some good articles here:

http://www.marquette.edu/maqom/

Read especially the section on divine mediator figures in second temple judaism. Good stuff there.

Michael
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