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12-29-2005, 01:48 PM | #61 | |
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12-29-2005, 02:03 PM | #62 |
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100% Proof Positive-No Doubt
100% Proof Positive -No Doubt
That title is to get your attention. But I have great proof that the Gospels were edited. In the Gospel of Matthew, Jesus uses the expression "the Kingdom of Heaven" about 30 times. But Jesus NEVER says "the Kingdom of Heaven" in any of the other Gospels. In Mark, Luke, and John's Gospels, Jesus says "the Kingdom of God". So now, when Jesus spoke to his apostles, disciples, etc, concerning the "Kingdom" did he actually say "Kingdom of HEAVEN" or did he actually say "Kingdom of GOD"? If you think about this you will realize that Jesus' words were definitely edited concerning about whether he said "Kingdom of Heaven" or "Kingdom of God". Now this may be a small point. But if the Gospel writers felt free to edit the actual utterances of Jesus, in this regard, how do we know if they didn't edit other words, verses, paragraphs, etc.....or maybe their imaginations just ran wild and they invented miracles. """He that is faithful in that which is least is faithful also in much: and he that is unjust in the least is unjust also in much."""Luke 16:10 Nick Hallandale enterprisestrategy@earthlink.net |
12-29-2005, 02:12 PM | #63 | ||
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12-30-2005, 07:53 AM | #64 | |
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I don't think the passage comes close to supporting your contention that Jesus would have been cut down on the spot. |
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12-30-2005, 08:18 AM | #65 | |
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The false witnesses were not entirely making up the accustation. Their falsehood lay in making Jesus, rather than God, the agent of destruction. Any kind of threat to the temple would have upset Caiaphas and his friends. It was their source of livelihood, and a very lucrative one too. The charge of blasphemy was a means to an end. Given that the sources for Jewish belief come from a later time, I'm not sure that we can say with exactitude what would have warranted a charge of blasphemy at the time of Jesus. |
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12-30-2005, 11:35 AM | #66 | |||||||
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I probably should have added that, in the parallel passage from War (Bk 2, Ch 12), Josephus clearly states that "and this was no more than what the former procurators of Judea did at such festivals". Andrew Criddle offers you what, IMO, is an apologetic straw to grasp: Quote:
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Regardless, this entirely ignores the point that such a disruption would have triggered an arrest if not immediate execution. Quote:
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12-30-2005, 04:45 PM | #67 | |
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At the moment, I have no idea who would be relevant to the usages in Matt and Luke. Since the authors are probably both gentiles, and it is not clear where and when they were writing from. |
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12-30-2005, 04:50 PM | #68 | |
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Note that in Matthew and Luke Jesus deflects the question of his identity, refusing to answer directly (Mt 26:64 ="Yes, it is as you say," Lk 22:67="If I tell you, you will not believe me, and if I asked you, you would not answer." ). Based on this agreement, Price (2003) speculates that our current version of Mark is incorrect. Sure enough, in certain manuscripts of Mark at 14:62 Jesus simply says: "You say" without the "Son of Man" commentary (p281-2). Grant (1963) notes:
However, David Hindley (2004) speculates that the writer of Mark may be engaged in a bit of sly word play. The Gospel of Mark is written in Greek. However, anyone familiar with Jewish scripture would immediately realize what "I am" meant in Hebrew: YHWH. And it is blasphemy to utter the name of God. |
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12-31-2005, 05:08 AM | #69 | |
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John does record that Jesus spent his last week in Jerusalem, and although he does not say that Jesus spent most of his time in the temple, that does not contradict what the synoptics tell us on that head. I take your point that moving the temple scene from the end to the beginning of Jesus' ministry is fairly major, but then John does a lot of things very differently from the synoptics, which is why it is not a synoptic gospel. Having already dealt with that scene to introduce his readers to the believer/nonbeliever conflict, which is one of his main motifs, he does not need to deal with it again. Of all the gospels, John is most obviously theological in intent, and although historical elements are present, it is the synoptics that contain most claims of a historical nature, and a discernible outline of events, and so form the basis for historical study. Yes, the blasphemy charge. I agree with you that it would not have been blasphemy to claim to be the Messiah, and perhaps I should have made myself a little clearer. I take it that the gospels intend us to understand that Jesus claimed to be the Messiah. This was not blasphemous. However, according to Mark, Jesus spoke of the "son of man sitting at the right hand of power" Jesus aserts that there are two figures sitting side by side in the heavenly world, God and a man. This would have been an offence to Jewish monotheism, and might be construed as blasphemy. I have not forgotten the issue of criteria for historical credibility, and I will get back to that. Oh, and I'm otherwise engaged tomorrow, so Happy New Year for tomorrow. |
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12-31-2005, 05:35 AM | #70 | |
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http://www.marquette.edu/maqom/ Read especially the section on divine mediator figures in second temple judaism. Good stuff there. Michael |
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