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10-04-2004, 09:47 PM | #21 | |
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You arelooking at the greek transliteration . The Aramaic is b'nai regesh. |
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10-04-2004, 10:45 PM | #22 | |
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Looking at the Greek transliteration tells you that there was a strong vowel in the first syllable. This points to the Hebrew beni being the more probable source. Got it? Why prefer your ideologically preferred source? You seem to be commited to Aramaic, not based on strong evidence but by belief. spin |
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10-04-2004, 11:23 PM | #23 | ||
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This too needs some evidence. It's a proposition at present, and we need some historical documentation here. Like the prescribed punishment for someone who kept an old copy in contradiction to Church law. |
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10-06-2004, 12:16 AM | #24 | |
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B'nai B'rith have got it wrong? It really should be Beni B'rith? |
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10-06-2004, 12:27 AM | #25 | ||
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here, post #45 I thought it might be worthwhile to look at the scholastic attitude to the peshitta. I'm sure many posting here can add something. But Vork although you are right that mainstream scholarship does reject the primacy of the peshitta, I think there is some value in scrutinising this claim. You may notice above that Andrew Criddle remarks that Quote:
But before examining the attitude of scholars I thought it would be appropriate to deal first with the lack of early fragments of the peshitta as this I believe unerlies all published schloastic arguments against the peshitta. IOW even the other arguments ultimately rely on the fact that the greek texts have earlier fragments. If this argument is not so stronmg then it is imporatnt to deal with it. (or attempt to) |
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10-06-2004, 12:32 AM | #26 | |
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many many fragments of greek Mss and none...noe at all of the peshitta. Also note that from 100 C.E. to 1100 C.E. there are no fragments of the Hebrew Bible either. It is evident these groups had a different attitude to scriptures. |
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10-06-2004, 01:00 AM | #27 | |
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If so I would be interested in examining the specifics? |
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10-06-2004, 01:52 AM | #28 | |
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Lot's of things have changed since the second temple, including Hebrew phonology. (How did semi-vocalic waw end up vav?? How did ab become av? Answer thesounds of the language were reinvented when Yiddish had effects on temple Hebrew and this latter was used as the guiding source for modern Hebrew.) Got any more such desperate arguments? spin |
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10-06-2004, 06:44 AM | #29 | ||
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Because Aphrahat often quotes allusively it is difficult to determine the underlying text but most scholars hold for example that Aphrahat had a text of the Beatitudes in Matthew chapter 5 in which verses 4 and 5 were interchanged (the general Western reading including the Diatessaron), Aphrahat omitted God in Matthew 6:33 (the kingdom of God and his righteousness) reading 'his kingdom and his righteousness' in rough agreement with many ancient authorities, Aphrahat was aware of the addition to Luke 23:48 found in other Syrian fathers some Old Latin and some apocryphal texts. Aphrahat in John 11:43 read 'Lazarus Lazarus' probably a Diatessaronic reading. (This is an interesting example because Aphrahat's argument requires the duplication but the quotation itself has been assimilated to the Peshitta). Aphrahat in John 15 read vineyard and vine instead of vine and branch along with other early Syrian fathers Not all of these examples are rock solid by any means but IMO they are of more significance in determining the text used by Aphrahat than the very minor agreements with the Peshitta which you quoted. Andrew Criddle |
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10-06-2004, 07:34 AM | #30 | |
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Answer: the sounds of the language were reinvented. Yiddish had effects on Hebrew spoken in synagogues and this latter was used as the guiding source for the construction of modern Hebrew. spin |
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