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Old 09-01-2012, 06:47 PM   #1
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Default On the Use of τὴν ἑαυτοῦ in the Pauline Letters

I am wondering whether when Paul uses τὴν ἑαυτοῦ in his letters he means that the Christian initiate is to make himself as his wife. An example this is usually translated in an ordinary sense:

Quote:
each one should have his own wife (ἕκαστος τὴν ἑαυτοῦ γυναῖκα ἐχέτω) [1 Cor. 7:2]
But I wonder if it should mean:

Quote:
each one should have himself as wife (perhaps 'his own as wife'? i.e. in the sense of 'other self'?)
In other words, to be an androgynous self-contained eco-system much as we read about the world in Plato:

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Of design he was created thus, his own waste providing his own food, and all that he did or suffered taking place in and by himself

ἀπῄει τε γὰρ οὐδὲν οὐδὲ προσῄειν αὐτῷ ποθενοὐδὲ γὰρ ἦναὐτὸ γὰρ ἑαυτῷ τροφὴν τὴν ἑαυτοῦ φθίσιν παρέχον καὶ πάντα ἐν ἑαυτῷ καὶ ὑφ΄ ἑαυτοῦ πάσχον καὶ δρῶν ἐκ τέχνης γέγονεν [Plato Timaeus 30c-31b, 32b-34b, 92c, translated by B. Jowett]
This is certainly how the monastic communities interpreted the writings of Paul - i.e. advocating self-love quite literally.
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Old 09-01-2012, 06:54 PM   #2
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I recognize that putting ἑαυτοῦ, ἑαυτῆς, in the attributive position is the only way to express the English equivalent of 'his own' 'her own' but I wonder whether there is a deeper, gnostic sense at work.
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Old 09-01-2012, 06:59 PM   #3
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These kind of mystical conceptions are common in early Christian writers like Clement. There is a strange mystical interest in self-knowledge from contemplation:

Now that which is lovable leads, to the contemplation of itself, each one who, from love of knowledge, applies himself entirely to contemplation (Ἀγωγὸν δὲ τὸ ἐραστὸν πρὸς τὴν ἑαυτοῦ θεωρίαν παντὸς τοῦ ὅλον ἑαυτὸν τῇ τῆς γνώσεως ἀγάπῃ ἐπιβεβληκότος τῇ θεωρίᾳ) [Stromata 7:16]
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Old 09-01-2012, 07:05 PM   #4
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So too Romans 5:8:

But God demonstrates His own love (την εαυτου αγαπην) toward us, in that while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us

This was interpreted as meaning the act of God loving 'his own' (i.e. within the heavenly household) was sent to all of humanity.
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Old 09-02-2012, 10:42 AM   #5
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Forget this rather forced interpretation. I found the original Marcionite reading in the Dialogues of Adamantius:

Ἔχει ἕκαστος τὴν ἑαυτοῦ δύναμιν (http://books.google.com/books?id=KI6...0power&f=false)

= each has its own power.
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Old 09-02-2012, 10:46 AM   #6
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So the original reading of the section was:

It is good for a man not to have contact with a woman, but to avoid πορνείας (fornication) let each have his own δύναμιν (authority/power) to prevent Satan from tempting you because of your lack of self-control. [1 Cor 7.1;5]
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Old 09-02-2012, 10:49 AM   #7
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This interpretation must be at the heart of the report in the Panarion about the followers of a certain Hieracas:

He gathers texts to prove his teaching from every place, <as> when he quotes: “And your sanctification, without which no one will see God. (Heb. 12:14) But if they say to him: How is it that the apostle says, “Marnage is honorable and the marriage-bed undefiled, but God will judge fornicators and adulter*ers”? (Heb. 13:4.) <he replies: But the apostle says further: “It is well for a man not to touch a woman”?>, (1 Cor. 7:1.) and he immediately continues, <“It is well for a man to be this way”?>. (1 Cor. 7:26.) Then skipping a few lines, he quotes, “The unmarried woman is concerned about how to please the Lord, and so is the virgin; but the married woman is concerned about pleasing her husband, and she is divided.” (1 Cor. 7:34, 33.) But if there is division, how can there be sharing in common where division is? And if she does not please God, but her husband, how can she receive the inheritance from God?

He says that <the apostle says>, “On account of fornication, each one should have his own wife” (1 Cor. 7:2.) not in the sense of praising marriage after the advent of Christ, but in the sense of tolerating it, lest they fall into greater ruin. “For there are eunuchs who make themselves such for the sake of the kingdom of heaven,” (Matt. 19:12.) and “I wish,” he says, “everyone to be as I am”, (1 Cor. 7:7.) 2.6. and “The kingdom of heaven is like ten virgins, five foolish and five sensible (Matt. 25:lf.): sensible virgins, foolish virgins, nonetheless virgins they are who are compared to the kingdom of heaven; he did not speak of married people. He collects many such passages in order to reject marriage.
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Old 09-02-2012, 10:58 AM   #8
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Are these citations of the original reading?

For this He voluntarily subjected Himself to the experiences of men, that by bringing Himself to the measure of our weakness whom He loved, He might correspondingly bring us to the measure of His own strength [τὴν ἑαυτοῦ δύναμιν ἀντιμετρήσῃ]. And about to be offered up and giving Himself a ransom, He left for us a new Covenant-testament: My love I give unto you. And what and how great is it? For each of us He gave His life, -- the equivalent for all. This He demands from us in return for one another. [clement QDS 37]
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Old 09-02-2012, 11:50 AM   #9
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Clement also says the name judas = power something which is not literally true
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Old 09-02-2012, 02:11 PM   #10
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Quote:
Originally Posted by stephan huller View Post
So the original reading of the section was:

It is good for a man not to have contact with a woman, but to avoid πορνείας (fornication) let each have his own δύναμιν (authority/power) to prevent Satan from tempting you because of your lack of self-control. [1 Cor 7.1;5]
So you think this was the original reading of 1 Cor 7,1; 5?
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