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Old 09-28-2005, 02:29 PM   #11
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Quote:
Originally Posted by TedM
Rather than assume it is comparable to your 'piazza' example, you are assuming later interpolations apparantly to make a very indirect reference to the presumed language of Jesus??
At the moment, I'm too knackered to think about it. The pizza example is specifically for the gospels, none of which I believe were written in a Palestinian context, or by Jews. I guess I wouldn't expect Paul to go the pizza route. Maranatha is suss to me. Abba is less of an eyesore.


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Old 10-01-2005, 12:36 AM   #12
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin

I have not argued for Hebrew being the exclusive language of Jews in 1st c. CE Judea, though I have argued that there isn't a shred of evidence for Andy's earlier outlandish claim that Aramaic was spoken by Jews in Judea since the return from exile.


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IIUC correctly you think this may be true though?
You just don't think there is enough evidence to support this?
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Old 10-01-2005, 01:03 AM   #13
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Originally Posted by judge
IIUC correctly you think this may be true though?
Using Murabba'at as an indicator, it looks like each of the three languages were in operation, but in different speech communities.

Quote:
Originally Posted by judge
You just don't think there is enough evidence to support this?
If you are asking about the Jews speaking Aramaic from the exile, there is no evidence that I know of for it. The Aramaic in Daniel and Ezra don't hint at any expertise in Aramaic early, as the Aramaic of these texts are problematic. Aramaic had to come from somewhere. Some choices:
  • it came with the returnees from exile;
  • it came with the Persian overlords;
  • it came from later returnees;
  • it came with the (Greek) Seleucids who used Aramaic in the east;
  • it came from Aramaic speakers in various contiguous regions;
  • and probably various others or combinations of the above.
We would need some evidence for any of these.


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Old 10-01-2005, 02:28 PM   #14
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Cool I will be a good boy ... I will be a good boy

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
We would need some evidence for any of these.
spin
Thomas, I will send you the hands of Jesus by UPS, so you can feel the wounds.
The guru is in denial: we have no evidence.
The guru tries to mislead the masses: "He {"Andy"} cites Wm Whiston's comments about the state of the language concerned. Whiston wrote well over 300 years ago and although he translated the Greek, he certainly is no font of knowledge about either Aramaic or Hebrew."

The guru does not realize that from the time of Whiston to today the Chaldee language has not changed (Whiston wrote that Josephus wrote his early books in Chaldee). "Father forgive them; they know not what they are saying."
The guru needs to go to school and do his homework:
say one hundred times "I will be a good boy ...I will be a good boy"
Say 50 times: "I won't tell others 'you don't know' ... I won't tell others 'you don't know'."
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Old 10-01-2005, 02:58 PM   #15
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Pilate stills offers nothing, and spin wins again. Do you even care about discourse, Pilate? Another one bites the dust.

Waiting for someone who actually cares,

Chris
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Old 10-01-2005, 03:38 PM   #16
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Cool Golgotha is bisexual!!

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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Pilate stills offers nothing, and spin wins again. Do you even care about discourse, Pilate? Another one bites the dust.
Waiting for someone who actually cares,
Chris
Are you a gaucho (the ones who lasso in the stray sheep of the guru) or are you a groopie (an obeisant subdued follower of the guru)?
Your guru is still searching in the Greek dictionary to find if Golgotha is masculine or feminine. He wrote "it is acting as feminine." Perhaps Golgotha is a bisexual!!!!! :rolling: Next time, before you send your guru to a debate you should teach him about Golgotha.
If Golgotha is masculine, is it like this? :down: or is it like this? :thumbs:
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Old 10-01-2005, 04:02 PM   #17
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Cool

Are we here among school boys? SomeONE here clearly wants to show that he has the biggest prick. :rolling:
Golgotha It is not a Greek word, it does not appear anywhere else in classical Greek, and nobody cares about its gender. And the xian translation "skull" is also ludicrous.
Sometimes newbies are a pain in the ass, especially when they are xians.
<deleted>
I do not give one more week to Pilate before he will be banned.

Thanks for the entertainment, but the best jokes are the shortest. :wave: :wave: :wave:
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Old 10-01-2005, 04:21 PM   #18
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pilate
Are you a gaucho (the ones who lasso in the stray sheep of the guru) or are you a groopie (an obeisant subdued follower of the guru)?
Your guru is still searching in the Greek dictionary to find if Golgotha is masculine or feminine. He wrote "it is acting as feminine." Perhaps Golgotha is a bisexual!!!!! :rolling: Next time, before you send your guru to a debate you should teach him about Golgotha.
If Golgotha is masculine, is it like this? :down: or is it like this? :thumbs:
I've got to admit it: I was relying on an authority. I was using Maurice Robinson's tagged Byzantine text -- the word golgoQa was tagged as feminine. And it will comes as no surprise that the W&H text is also tagged as feminine. And yet again a tagged TR has it tagged as feminine. These are texts formatted by scholars: Robinson is a well-respected professor of biblical Greek. Now as Pilate is so respectful of other people's scholarship and opinions, he must of course bow in awe of their indelible correctness and repent of his erroneous ways immediately.

Now we turn to the Alexandrian text of Mk 15:22: ton golgoQan topon. The ton is in a clear minority of text traditions. The /n/ of golgoQan is not in a sizable number, though it is the majority. In the other gospel references Pilate has no case whatsoever, because the context allows no such interpretation, so we are left by the unstable Marcan text for his conclusion, while Mk is relatively well-known for its grammatical problems.

However, when I indicated that the Alexandrian text had the masculine article, I demurred to the case that golgoQa may have been masculine. I don't care, but what is hilarious is that after Pilate has made such a ruckus over his wounded pride and plastered his wounds all over the forum -- and I believe that Pilate should apologize to the forum for his very poor performance --, he is now grasping onto his understanding of Greek -- and I'm pleased that he now has something to trumpet about -- and tries to stick his tongue out, saying "there! so notice me now."


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Old 10-01-2005, 04:45 PM   #19
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Cool A Greek dictionary does not qualify one to be an expert on Christianity.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Better question though: where's the evidence?spin
Folks, sit back and enjoy. We will have debate mixed with comedy.
I will refute every "hilarious" claim or stetement he makes and we will have fun and learning.
The guru is shaking again!!!!
The evidene is there, and he is afraid to face it. The gospel of the first Christians, the Jewish Christians was written in Chaldee= Aramaic. If they did not speak Aramaic they would not have an Aramaic gospel. This is so simple that the wise guru cannot understand it: ‘I thank you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and the intelligent and have revealed them to infants.’� Yes, even infants can understand this. But the guru is suffering from infantile paralysis ... of the cerebrum!!! :rolling:

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
one's hilarious: The Language of the Hebrews (of the Hellenistic era) is Aramean (mixed with Chaldee, Arabic, and some Hebrew words). Chaldee apparently isn't Aramean. He seems to think Arabic had some influence in the matter. (I have to stop myself from laughing myself off the chair.) This bit about Arabic comes from his bumbling with a Hebrew lexicon. I think this guy thinks linguistics means French kissing.
The person who made the inference Childee is not Aramiac should enroll in a Macdonald's class, and re-learn how to make those tasty "Substratum burgers." (The Arameans started from Arabia.- using the lingo fo the guru: 'DOH'!)
While he falls of the chair he should hold on to his Substratum burger. Also, he should put some of that Golgotha stuff in it. It will make the Substratum tasty.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
I have not argued for Hebrew being the exclusive language of Jews in 1st c. CE Judea,spin
The guru will argue until the second coming of the Lord (... don't hold your breath). Will he have enough oil left in his lamp? Or is he going to run out, like the five foolish virgins?
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
though I have argued that there isn't a shred of evidence for Andy's earlier outlandish claim that Aramaic was spoken by Jews in Judea since the return from exile.spin
The Guru blames Andy. He is afraid to face Shemariahu Talmon and Frank Cross ... who ever heard of these idiots :huh: Who is Frank Cross? Perhaps he is a fundie in disguise, with a secret agenda.
.... This guru is an imposter!!!! The real guru is in India, having luch with Dalai Lama.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Early in this -- for want of better words -- discussion, I argued that one cannot assume Jesus lived, so one cannot assume what language he might have spoken. spin
Do not listen to him. He tells others that they don't know, yet he does not know himself. He is not qualified to make such statements, when he can't even read a sentence in the Greek New Testament without the help of a dictionary.
He does not debate, he skips and runs. When someone poses questions that he can't answer he skips them. When someone brings evidence he skips it too.
The jumping guru runs for the mountains!!
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Old 10-01-2005, 05:09 PM   #20
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It is evidence that Pilate is turning this forum into a farce. <deleted>Please, mods...
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