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11-27-2007, 04:41 PM | #1 |
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Price's argument actually goes beyond the synagogue question. He seems to say here that even the Pharisees were sparse in Galilee during that time, as well as the term "rabbi" being anachronistic:
We also begin to take a second look at all those scenes set in Galilean synagogues where Jesus is shown disputing with the Pharisees and tying them in knots. Our archaeological evidence, as Mack notes, gives no hint of there having been synagogues in Galilee in the first century. Nor does the pious Pharisee movement seem to have existed there until after 70 C.E., when Jews were forced out of Jerusalem and headed north. Before that, the scribes had only taunts for Galilee, calling it "Galilee of the Gentiles,", denying that any prophet could appear there, calling a biblical ignoramus a Galilean ("Are you from Galilee, too? Search the scriptures and you will see that no prophet is to rise in Galilee." John 7:52), calling it "Galilee, who hatest the Torah." One rabbi, having lived there for a year or so, bemoaned, upon his return, that in all the time he had sojourned there, only once did anyone so much as ask him a single question about the Torah. Not exactly Pharisee turf, then - till decades after Jesus. Likewise, the use of the term "rabbi" for scribes and teachers seems to have become current only toward the end of the first century C.E. And yet already in Mark, Jesus is called "Rabbi", and is debating with Pharisees in Galilean synagogues! What we seem to have here is an anachronistic reading back of the circumstances of religious debate in late first-century Galilee into the time of Jesus. "Deconstructing Jesus", pg. 66 Michael |
11-27-2007, 05:19 PM | #2 | |
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Let's see. A quick perusal of Mark shows that Mark uses rabbi three times and rabbouni (rabboni) once (10:51); all four instances convey a sense of Jesus’ particular greatness (Mark 9:5; 11:21 [Peter]; 14:45 [Judas]; 10:51 [Bartimaeus, who follows Jesus]). In three of the four instances, Jesus is called rabbi in response to a miraculous action on Jesus’ part: the Transfiguration (9:5), the withering of the fig tree (11:21), and the healing of the blind (10:51). Hmm. Not in any synagogue debates let alone Galilean debates with Pharisees. Note too that Bartimaeus’ reference to Jesus as rabbouni is coupled with the address “son of David” (10:47, 48), suggesting that the term should be thought of as meaning “sir” or perhaps “lord,” and not “teacher” (cf. 9:17, in which “teacher” is used in a case of healing). Didaskalos, “teacher,” on the other hand, is used as a more general form of address by both disciples (4:38; 9:38; 10:35; 13:1) and nondisciples (9:17; 10:17, 20; 12:14, 19, 32). So where in Mark is Jesus called teacher by means of the term Rabbi? And where is he called Rabbi in synagogue debates with Pharisees? Jeffrey |
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11-27-2007, 05:37 PM | #3 |
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11-27-2007, 05:43 PM | #4 | |
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And here in Mark 2 is certainly what appears to be debates with Pharisees, presumably in Galilee, since the locale is Capernaum just a few passages prior: When the teachers of the law who were Pharisees saw him eating with the "sinners" and tax collectors, they asked his disciples: "Why does he eat with tax collectors and 'sinners'?" On hearing this, Jesus said to them, "It is not the healthy who need a doctor, but the sick. I have not come to call the righteous, but sinners." One Sabbath Jesus was going through the grainfields, and as his disciples walked along, they began to pick some heads of grain. The Pharisees said to him, "Look, why are they doing what is unlawful on the Sabbath?" He answered, "Have you never read what David did when he and his companions were hungry and in need? In the days of Abiathar the high priest, he entered the house of God and ate the consecrated bread, which is lawful only for priests to eat. And he also gave some to his companions." Then he said to them, "The Sabbath was made for man, not man for the Sabbath. So the Son of Man is Lord even of the Sabbath." Michael Dravis |
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11-27-2007, 05:50 PM | #5 | |
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Michael |
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11-27-2007, 05:58 PM | #6 | |||
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But what about his point that Mark uses Rabbi with the sense of teacher? Quote:
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11-27-2007, 06:07 PM | #7 | |||
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Price's argument is that the term used to mean "teacher/scribe" or for people who were acting, at the time of the appellation, as scribes and teachers wasn't used early ("the use of the term "rabbi" for scribes and teachers seems to have become current only toward the end of the first century C.E Quote:
Jeffrey |
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11-27-2007, 06:21 PM | #8 | |
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11-27-2007, 06:29 PM | #9 | |
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If this is truly an accurate statement, it does present a drastically different picture than the one given by Price. Price doesn't present the scenario as possible, let alone intrinsically probable. Interesting. Michael |
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11-27-2007, 07:39 PM | #10 | ||
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What is his basis for the statement "Since Mark writes just before or after the war against Rome, he is not anachronistically reading the later rabbis back into Jesus’ life as Pharisees" (other than wishful thinking?) What is his basis for saying "such a role in Galilean society for the Pharisees is intrinsically probable" other than a need to validate the gospel? Just asking. Saldarin appears to be the author of Pharisees, Scribes and Sadducees in Palestinian Society (or via: amazon.co.uk) among other works. |
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