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04-16-2005, 01:58 PM | #21 |
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I've read several times today that Caligula gave Damascus over Aretas IV (in A.D. 39, because Aretas had held it earlier, allegedly). Can anyone find confirmation of that?
I've also read several references to a coin with a date of "101" on it that is identified with Aretas IV in Damascus. If dated in years from Pompey, the date would be A.D. 37. If the reference is not from Paul and about in event in the 30s, what is it? (This is not a rhetorical question--it is a genuine one.) best, Peter Kirby |
04-16-2005, 02:39 PM | #22 | |||
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04-16-2005, 03:34 PM | #23 | |
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I've also read several references to a coin with a date of "101" on it that is identified with Aretas IV in Damascus. If dated in years from Pompey, the date would be A.D. 37. Does anyone have information on this coin? If the reference in 2 Corinthians is not from Paul and about in event in the 30s, what is it? (This is not a rhetorical question--it is a genuine one.) best, Peter Kirby |
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04-16-2005, 04:05 PM | #24 | ||||
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Aretas III minted a lot of coins in Damascus. Aretas IV minted coins that could have found their way to Damascus. I wonder how that 101 is interpreted - the source says "if that date points to the Pompeian era. . . " But why would one of Aretas' coins use a Pompeian date? I suspect that we have more harmonizing going on. There are a lot of coins representing Aretas IV on the market. You can read descriptions here, e.g. Quote:
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Just my best guess. |
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04-16-2005, 04:46 PM | #25 | |
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My own 'best guess' so far is that there was an ethnarch in Damascus who represented the Nabateans, and he is the one who took action againt Paul. My second best guess is the (bizarre) idea that Paul was active, or putatively active, in the 80s BC, when Aretas III is known to have been king over Damascus. My rhird best guess is that Aretas IV took Damascus as so many writers claim. best, Peter Kirby |
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04-16-2005, 05:07 PM | #26 | |
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Dating this way is known by scholars as 'Pompeian era' dates although IIUC this is not an ancient usage. Different cities began the 'Pompeian era' at slightly different times but usually from 64 or 63 BCE. Andrew Criddle |
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04-16-2005, 05:16 PM | #27 | |
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The second would fit in with the "Jesus lived 100 BC" idea but raises a lot of questions. Where were Paul's letters between 80 or 70 BCE and 120 when Marcion published them? Could they have been transmitted that accurately? Why are there no references to Christians from that period? The Jesus who lived 100 BC was stoned, but Paul seems to know nothing about this. The third is possible, but seems to have no basis except a desire to keep the scriptures in sych with known history. Are you discounting the articles on your site? I still think that the most reasonable explanation is that Paul is speaking in metaphor, or referring to some story or event that his audience would be familiar with, but which is lost to us. |
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04-16-2005, 05:26 PM | #28 | |||
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Sid Green relies on a partial interpolation of the passage. I was attempting to explain the passage as it stands in the text. I wonder whether Leidner would regard the passage as interpolated. It would be nice if his work were better developed. best, Peter Kirby |
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04-16-2005, 07:04 PM | #29 |
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Re the idea of dating Paul before the middle of the 1st century BCE.
Philippians 4:22 Speaks of 'Caesar's household'. I'm not sure when this was introduced as a technical term for the Emperor's staff, but I'm pretty sure it wasn't used before the establishment of the principate in 27 BCE. Andrew Criddle |
04-17-2005, 05:01 AM | #30 | |
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