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Old 04-15-2005, 08:41 PM   #1
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Default Did Paul Write in AD 70-100?

This is an idea that is advanced by Harold Leidner in "The Fabrication of the Christ Myth." It may have other supporters, but I don't know of them. I possess the book and would give a summary, but Vorkosigan has already done that well on the JM list:

Quote:
Originally Posted by Vorkosigan
Harold Leidner argues in _The Fabrication of the
Christ Myth_ that Paul's letters are valid but date
from after 70. He compares the famous passage in Gal
4:24-26:

*******
"Now this is an allegory. These women represent two
covenants. One was from Mount Sinai, bearing children
for slavery; this is Hagar.Hagar represents Sinai, a
mountain in Arabia; *it corresponds to the present
Jerusalem, for she is in slavery along with her
children. But the Jerusalem above is freeborn, and she
is our mother.*"
*******

...to a similar passage in 4 Ezra:

*****
"Zion, the mother of us all, is in great grief and
deep affliction... Our Levites are gone into
captivity, our righteous youths are enslaved...This
was the fall of Jerusalem, which has come to pass."
*********

Leidner then suggests that the famous "interpolation"
in 1 Thess 2 may be genuine, and then moves on to the
passage in Ephesians where Paul refers to the "middle
wall of separation", a passage often thought to be
allegorical, but which some commentators have
interpreted as a reference to the Stone Wall in the
Temple beyond which no Gentile was allowed to go. In
other words, that passage also refers to the
destruction of the Temple.

Leidner then re-reinterpets Paul as an orthodox Jew
galvanized by the fall of the Temple. "He was a
product of the Hellenic diaspora and had joined a
missionary sect, but now the missionary effort had
almost collapsed." Leidner goes on to compare the
Judaism of 2 Baruch and 4 Ezra with the theology of
Paul.

Frankly, I have often thought this view makes the most
sense, pyscholoically and chronologically. During the
70s, 80s, and 90s, the new communities are taking
shape out in the Diaspora and Paul is writing his
letters. They are the only "authentic" documents we
have, though now heavily reworked. Mark, writing about
120-140, writes the first narrative, drawing heavily
on Paul, the OT, and the conventions of Hellenistic
novelistic writings. It was Luke who hit upon the
strategy of historicizing the ideas of Mark and
back-projecting Christianity into the past. I doubt
Mark ever intended his story to be read as a real
historical account.

Psychologically it makes no sense to imagine that the
end of the world was nigh prior to 70 and the
destruction of the Temple. That's why in
back-projecting Christianity into the pre-70 period
the Christians were forced to invent the idea of the
Incarnation and Return Someday. This brilliant
mechanism solved the double problem of how to account
for Christ's appearance prior to 70, and how to keep
the believers in a permanent state of revolutionary
agitation and expansion.
Toto writes, "He departs most from the standard liberal textual interpretation by claiming that Paul's letters were written after 70 CE, as Paul survived to that time, along with Peter and James. He dates Paul's letters based on their links to 2 Baruch and 4 Ezra, and on analysis indicating that the letters were written after the fall of Jerusalem. His thesis is that Paul was recruited to a missionary sect of Judaism in the Hellenic diaspora around 60 CE, that he worked primarily with gentile converts and near converts, and that his theology was a reaction to the holocaust of the Jewish War. He dates the visit recorded in Galatians to 74 CE. He thus rejects the vague church legends of martyrdom for Peter and Paul (as well as James); he claims that is why Paul is apparently alive at the end of Acts; if there were any material on his martyrdom, the author of Acts would have worked it into the narrative."

Does anyone have any evidence that can shed further light on when Paul lived and wrote?

best,
Peter Kirby
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Old 04-15-2005, 09:10 PM   #2
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Dating Paul's Epistles is a thread from last year on that topic.
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Old 04-15-2005, 09:42 PM   #3
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Is it illogical to suggest the texts first took a form recognizable to us after the Bar Kochba episode in 135CE? It seems having an actual, verifiable, tangible figure declared The Messiah by the preeminent religious leader of the time would make the Jesus as Messiah story an easier sell in the Diaspora. Mix a little Hillel and Bar Kokhba, pour a little Apocalyptic dressing over it, et voila, instant mythology.
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Old 04-15-2005, 09:47 PM   #4
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I think that some things are probably lost to history, but if I were going to try to pin Paul down, I would consider the Gnostic Valentinus.

According to Clement of Alexandria, Valentinus was a disciple of Theudas, who was a disciple of Paul. This timeline has these dates:

Quote:
37-65 Activity of Saint Paul.

C60 Theudas a disciple of Paul.

C62 Martyrdom of James, brother of Jesus

C65 Martyrdom of Paul

70 Destruction of Jerusalem

C70-110 Development of speculative theology among some of Paul's followers.

- - - - - - - - - - - -

C90 Valentinus born in Phrebonis, Egypt (near Alexandria).

C110 Valentinus comes into contact with Theudas, an aging disciple of Paul

C120 Valentinus founds school at Alexandria after having a vision of Christ in the form of a child. Theodotus among his first followers.
The idea that Theudas was "aging" seems to be contrived, to fit the standard chronology, which requires that Theudas be about 20 in 60, so that he would be 70 when he met Valentinus. This is possible, but it seems more likely that Theudus was a generation older than Valentinus, and studied under Paul in the late first century, perhaps even the early 2nd c.
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Old 04-15-2005, 10:56 PM   #5
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scratch: How would Marcion come to believe that the writings of Valentinus, Marcion's contemporary, actually belonged to Paul? Would the destruction of the Temple and its judgment on Jews be as relevant in AD 120 as it is in AD 70-90, say? You're not actually saying that Paul is Valentinus.

I would say that you have a reasonable point. It does depend on accepting the Theudas tradition.

I wonder whether more evidence can be made for Leidner's date, or whether evidence can sway things in favor of the traditional 45-65 range.

best,
Peter Kirby
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Old 04-16-2005, 01:19 AM   #6
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IF 2 Corinthians 11:32
Quote:
At Damascus the governor under King Aretas...
refers to a period when King Aretas held some sort of control of Damascus then this is usually dated in the reign of Caligula. Certainly Rome held firm control of Damascus till the early 30s and had recovered control before the end of the reign of Nero.

In any case Aretas IV ruled from c 9 BCE - 40 CE and IIUC there is not another Aretas till the 2nd century CE (Malichus II c 40 - 71 CE and Rabbell II c 71 - 106 CE)

Hence I don't see that the incident Paul is referring to can be later than 40 CE.

1 Corinthians 9:13
Quote:
Do you not know that those who are employed in the temple service get their food from the temple and those who serve at the altar share in the scrificial offerings ?
and
1 Corinthians 10:18
Quote:
Consider Israel according to the flesh; are not those who eat the sacrifices partners in the altar ?
seem to imply that for Paul at the time of writing the temple sacrificial ritual is still going on.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 04-16-2005, 01:42 AM   #7
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Was Paul Ever In Damascus

I am less sure about some of the sources that I referenced in that thread, but it does appear that Aretas never ruled Damascus. There might have been an ethnarch with some sort of power over the Nabatean residents of Damascus, but that is speculative.
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Old 04-16-2005, 01:51 AM   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
Was Paul Ever In Damascus

I am less sure about some of the sources that I referenced in that thread, but it does appear that Aretas never ruled Damascus. There might have been an ethnarch with some sort of power over the Nabatean residents of Damascus, but that is speculative.
Even if Aretas never ruled in Damascus there can hardly have been an ethnarch working for him except during his reign (c 9BCE - 40CE)

NOTE

We are not discussing here whether Paul's letters are authentic but when they on internal evidence claim to be written.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 04-16-2005, 02:34 AM   #9
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
On this thread even if English loophole can mean both 'small window' and 'technicality' this provides no evidence whatever for such a double meaning of ThURIS the Greek word used in the NT.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 04-16-2005, 03:20 AM   #10
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Quote:
Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
In any case Aretas IV ruled from c 9 BCE - 40 CE and IIUC there is not another Aretas till the 2nd century CE (Malichus II c 40 - 71 CE and Rabbell II c 71 - 106 CE)
Hmmm.......

Quote:
1 Corinthians 9:13 and
1 Corinthians 10:18 seem to imply that for Paul at the time of writing the temple sacrificial ritual is still going on.

Andrew Criddle
1. But the Temple ritual did go on in reduced form until the second war.
2. There were other Temples (in Egypt), no?
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