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Old 02-17-2004, 09:48 PM   #21
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Originally posted by Doctor X
This thread probably belongs in Biblical Criticism and History where people can comment on the language.

I just posted [Pontificated.--Ed.] over there about the requirements for child sacrifice and the herem--"ban"--sacrificing of men, women, children to your god after conquest--in the Pentateuch. Anyways, one of my sources is a wonderful article which was the presidential address to the Society of Biblical Literature. I quote its conclusion:


quote:
The least that should be expected of ay biblical interpreter is honesty, and that requires the recognition, in the words of James Barr, that "the command of consecration to destruction is morally offensive and has to be faces as such," whether it is found in the Bible or the Qur'an. To recognice this is to admit that the Bible, for all the wisdom it contains, is not infallible guide on ethical matters. . . . But historically people have appealed to the Bible precisely because of its presumed divine authority, . . . The Bible has contributed to violence in the would precisely because it has been taken to confer a degree of certitude that transcends human discussion and argumentation. Perhaps the most constructive thing a biblical critic can do toward lessening the contribution of the Bible to violence in the world, is to show that that certitude is an illusion.

--J.D.

References:

Collins JJ, The Zeal of Phinehas: The Bible and the Legitimation of Violence, Journal of Biblical Literature 120 (2003): 3-21..
If you are claiming that the bible teaches literal human sacrifice you are absurd. Read Jeremiah 19:5-6 among several others that condemn it. And the fact that the bible has conferred a degree of certitude about what it teaches has contributed most of what is best about western civilization.
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Old 02-17-2004, 09:55 PM   #22
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Originally posted by Ed
If you are claiming that the bible teaches literal human sacrifice you are absurd. Read Jeremiah 19:5-6 among several others that condemn it. And the fact that the bible has conferred a degree of certitude about what it teaches has contributed most of what is best about western civilization.
Really? Most of what I like about western civilization (such as it is) has little or nothing to do with the bible, and less to do with the church.
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Old 02-18-2004, 08:14 AM   #23
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If you are claiming that the bible teaches literal human sacrifice you are absurd. Read Jeremiah 19:5-6 among several others that condemn it.
Yes, the Bible does indeed teach literal human sacrifice. There ARE also verses that condemn it (these are Biblical contradictions), but Jeremiah 19:5-6 is not among them:
Quote:
Jeremiah 19:5-6 They have built also the high places of Baal, to burn their sons with fire for burnt offerings unto Baal, which I commanded not, nor spake it, neither came it into my mind: Therefore, behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that this place shall no more be called Tophet, nor The valley of the son of Hinnom, but The valley of slaughter.
OF COURSE the Bible doesn't say that human sacrifices to Baal are OK! They're sacrificing to the wrong deity!

Does God approve of human sacrifice?

Note that, despite the Biblical contradictions on this issue, there is NO verse which says that human sacrifice itself is wrong: that is a lie concocted by apologists.

Human sacrifice to OTHER GODS is wrong, but the Caananite habit of sacrificing the firstborn child (if it's done to YHWH) is a contradiction. Sacrificing captives to YHWH is a good thing to do: no contradiction there (incidentally, this is probably why human flesh is not listed as "unclean": it wouldn't be suitable for sacrifice if it was unclean).

Once again, you have demonstrated that you do not know the Bible.
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Old 02-18-2004, 09:40 PM   #24
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Originally posted by Karalora
Wrong. Genocide is the extermination, or attempted extermination, of any racial, ethnic, national, religious, or tribal group. (Some lexicographers also include political groups in the definition.) The reason/justification for a mass killing has no bearing on whether or not it is classified as genocide.


All of those fit my definition, ie who they are, except for religion and politics. Your definition may the current one, but originally IIRC the word came from "gen" (genetic or ethnic group) and "ocide" (kill).

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kara: Even if you want to play havoc with the definition of the word, it is impossible for every member of the tribes destroyed by Yahweh to be guilty of the sins they were supposedly destroyed for--many of them were surely young children. But the young children were also murdered...because of who they were, who their parents were.
No, as I stated ALL humans from birth have a tendency to rebel against their creator and King, that is what they were killed for, NOT because of who they were or who their parents were.
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Old 02-19-2004, 01:25 AM   #25
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No, as I stated ALL humans from birth have a tendency to rebel against their creator and King, that is what they were killed for, NOT because of who they were or who their parents were.
The Bible says you're wrong.

I strongly urge you to READ it someday. Until you do, you will continue to make blunders like this.
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Old 02-19-2004, 02:56 AM   #26
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Ed:

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If you are claiming that the bible teaches literal human sacrifice you are absurd.
Ipse dixit and wrong. Incidentally, it is not me but others--such as the referenced Judaic and biblical scholars who recognize it. To quote Collins:

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It is now widely recognized that human sacrifice was practiced in ancient Israel much later than scholars of an earlier generation had assumed.
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Read Jeremiah 19:5-6 among several others that condemn it.
Late text. I quoted and explained it in the post above. Since you apparently neglected this, I shall redirect your attention to it:

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They have built shrines to Baal, to put their children to the fire as burnt offerings to Baal--which I never commanded, never decreed, and which never came into My mind. Assuredly, a time is coming--declares the Lord--when this place shall not longer be called Topeth or Valley of Benihinnom ["Valley of the son of Hinnom" in RSV.--Ed.], but Valley of Slaughter.
Levenson gives the date for Jeremiah between late 7th and early 6th centuries BCE. Friedman argues strongly for the connection between the D material and Jeremiah and that the same author wrote-edited both. He further speculates it is Baruch son of Neriyah. Anyways he dates the first "part" of D to before Josiah died in 609 BCE and the second after the Babylonian destruction and exile in 587 BCE. The relevance of that is the lateness of the texts. Levenson comments:

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The threefold denial of the origin of the practice in YHWH's will . . . suggests that the prophet doth protest too much. . . . If the practitioners of child sacrifice, unlike Jeremiah, thought that YHWH did indeed ordain the rite, then we may have here some indirect evidence that the literal reading of Exod 22:28b . . . was not absurd in ancient Israel, . . . It appears, instead, that Jeremiah's attacks on child sacrifice are aimed not only at the practice itself, but also at the tradition that YHWH desires it.
Thus, the texts reflect/refer to a time when child sacrifice was a requirement as demonstrated in Exod 34:19-20.

You also ignored this passage:

Ezek 20:25-26:

[quote]
Quote:
I [YHWH.--Ed.], in turn, gave them laws that were not good and rules by which they could not live: When they set aside every first issue of the womb, I defiled them by their very gifts--that I might render them desolate, that they might know that I am the Lord.
The RSV and other translations preserve perhaps a better translation:

[quote]
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Moreover I gave them statues that were not good and ordinances by which they could not have life; and I defiled them through their very gifts in making them offer by fire all their first-born, that I might horrify them; I did it that they might know I am the Lord.
in that they preserve the reference to immolation--"passing through fire." Levenson cites this in support of the contention:

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. . . that only at a particular stage rather late in the history of Israel was child sacrifice branded as counter to the will of YHWH. . . .

But, whereas Jeremiah vociferously denied the origin of the practice in the will of YHWH, Ezekiel affirmed it: YHWH gave Israel "laws that were not good" in order to desolate them, . . . The evil that he once willed is the law that requires sacrifice of the first-born.

Combining this with the blunt statement that YHWH did indeed ordain child sacrifice, Ezek 20:25-26 has over the centuries had most exegetes running for cover.
Quod erat demonastandum.

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And the fact that the bible has conferred a degree of certitude about what it teaches has contributed most of what is best about western civilization.
Such as child sacrifice.

Such as--another thing you must have missed--the herem:

Quote:
Collins article mention'd in post above discusses the herem, ". . . or ban, the practice whereby the defeated enemy was devoted to destruction." There is a "." underneath the "h" for ye purists. This section alone makes Collins' article worth a read. Basically, he notes that the various YHWH-ordered smiting of various Somethingorotherakites--such as 1 Sam 15:3: "Now go and attack Amalek, and utterly destroy (hrm ) all that they have; do not spare them, but kill both man and woman, child and infant, ox and sheep, camel and donkey." Apparently he likes bunnies. . . . Anyways, the herem is not an odd practice. The Moabite Stone erected by the 9th century BCE King Mesha has him squishing "Nebo from Israel" and offering "seven thousand men, boys, women, girls, and maid-servant" to Ashtar-Chemosh. [Text of Moabite Stone is from the ANET.--Ed.]

The point Collins stresses:

Quote:
The enemy is deemed worthy of being offered to God. [That refers to the argument of Niditch.--Ed.] One hopes that the Canaanites appreciated the honor. Rather than respect for human life, the practice bespeaks a totalistic attitude, which is common in armies and warfare, wherein the individual is completely subordinated to the interests of the group. Niditch is quite right, however, that the ban as sacrifice requires "a God who appreciates human sacrifice," and that those who practiced the ban "would presumably have something in common with those who believed in the efficacy of child sacrifice."
Quod erat demonstrandum time two. . . .

--J.D.
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Old 02-19-2004, 09:16 PM   #27
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Originally posted by brighid
Ed,

You are right God did predict Pharoah's heart would be hardened, because in every instance HE actually hardened his heart. There is only ONE verse in all of Exodus that suggest Pharaoh did any of this of his own fruition. So you can play whatever semantics games you want and perform olympian quality mental gymnastics, but an honest conclusion (and one can look at various translations at BlueLetter Bible) is that God took Pharaoh's free will away in order to exact revenge upon the Egyptian people.

Even your own translation clearly states that God hardened Pharaoh's heart.


See above where I addressed all of these issues. Don't you read the responses people make to your posts?

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brig: Your God, as represented in the OT, is a warmongering, jealous, hatefully, genocidal maniac who abuses people in all manner of speaking. Where he a leader in the Middle East today he would make Sadaam Hussein look like an angel, and surely our "Christian" nation would make war upon him for all the crimes he committed against humanity.
No, see above. BTW, you still have not provided a rational and objective reason for why you think any of those things are even wrong.

Quote:
brig: There is NO reason, sinful nature or not, to committ genocide. Any person with a moral conscience shouldn't even have to think twice about such things. If your faith has retarded your moral conscience to such a degree that you cannot see the immorality of slaughtering of innocence, raping women, ripping unborn children from the wombs of their mothers, capturing other tribes and enslaving their women and children, etc ... I am afraid you are lost and no amount of religion and prayer can save you from the moral void your interpretation of your faith has twisted your conscience into.

Since they were destroyed for what they did, ie rebelling against the king of the universe, and preventing his representatives, ie israel, from acquiring their land. So it does not qualify as genocide. Unless you are going to say that capital punishment for all murderers is genocide of murderers.


Quote:
brig: If your God is morally perfect, absolutely good, loving, compassionate and merciful I am quite confident that He would agree.

Brighid
How do you know? Have you encountered a morally perfect being?
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Old 02-19-2004, 09:18 PM   #28
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Originally posted by Jabu Khan
How many times did he test the hearts of the first born of every household before he struck them dead? Nevermind the fact that God doesn't seem to understand that people think and feel with their brains not their hearts.
Huh?
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Old 02-19-2004, 09:41 PM   #29
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Originally posted by Jack the Bodiless
Here we go again!

Isa 13:15 Every one that is found shall be thrust through; and every one that is joined [unto them] shall fall by the sword.

Isa 13:16 Their children also shall be dashed to pieces before their eyes ; their houses shall be spoiled, and their wives ravished

… it seems it’s okay to rape women …

Ed: No, these were predictions of what would happen to Babylon, not endorsements of the behavior.


jtb: Ed, have you EVER actually read the Bible?

It's easy enough to check the context. Just read the previous verses.

"...the LORD of hosts mustereth the host of the battle... even the LORD, and the weapons of his indignation, to destroy the whole land... Howl ye; for the day of the LORD is at hand; it shall come as a destruction from the Almighty... Behold, the day of the LORD cometh, cruel both with wrath and fierce anger,, to lay the land desolate: and he shall destroy the sinners thereof out of it... And I will punish the world for their evil..."
The Bible couldn't be more clear. This is God's doing.


Yes, it was his doing but only indirectly, that is what these verses mean. He allowed the Assyrians to attack the Babylonians and do all these things. But he did not directly cause these things, as we know from Job, how he allows evil things to happen sometimes for greater good. And he does not endorse such behaviors.

Quote:
Deu 13:9 But thou shalt surely kill him; thine hand shall be first upon him to put him to death, and afterwards the hand of all the people.

Ed: This was because the people of ancient Israel were held to a higher standard than Christians. After Christ came he allows freedom of conscience as plainly shown by the actions of himself and his disciples.

jtb: So genocide is a "higher standard" of morality? What a great man Hitler was! He held the German nation to a higher standard than those degenerate democracies!
No, the higher standard was not allowing unbelievers to be a part of the nation.

Quote:
jtb: BTW, Jesus never advocated religious freedom. The Christians merely lacked the power to compel obedience.
Of course they could have, ever hear of the jewish sicarii and their knives? The disciples could have quite easily just threatened to stab and kill someone if they didnt convert. But instead they just used arguments and evidence. And then left them alone if they didnt convert.

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Deu 20:16 But of the cities of these people, which the LORD thy God doth give thee [for] an inheritance, thou shalt save alive nothing that breatheth

Deu 20:17 But thou shalt utterly destroy them; [namely], the Hittites, and the Amorites, the Canaanites, and the Perizzites, the Hivites, and the Jebusites; as the LORD thy God hath commanded thee:

Ed: The nations were destroyed because their time of reckoning had come for their sins. But as I stated earlier God was being gracious to them by letting them live for a time, because all sin deserves immediate death.

jtb: Completely untrue. Those nations were destroyed because God gave that land to the Israelites "for an inheritance", that's why there were different rules for them. Again, you're contradicting your Bible.
You are partially right, technically there were two simultaneous reasons for destroying them, the reason I gave and the reason you gave. What different rules?

Quote:
jtb: And "all sin deserves immediate death"? Ah, yes, that great Christian tolerance again!

Deu 21:11 And seest among the captives a beautiful woman, and hast a desire unto her, that thou wouldest have her to thy wife;

and no matter how much she cries for her family, after you have shaved her head and clipped her nails and allowed her to wail for a month, you can rape her and make her your wife

No, in Deut. 21:13-14, it states that if the marriage does not work out she is free to go and should not be humiliated and treated like a slave. So there is no rape here.

jtb: No, Deut. 21:13-14 does NOT say that, and you KNOW it does not say that, because we have discussed this before. The woman CANNOT choose divorce. Only the MAN can end the "relationship", if he "has no delight in her" he can get rid of her.
Yes, the man has the primary option but she can control it by not delighting him.

Quote:
1.) Is it morally acceptable to rip the unborn fetus from the womb of a sinning mother (who just happens to be from a different "tribe"/ "nation)? Using the Golden Rule of do unto others as you would have them do onto you would it be acceptable to rip the unborn fetus from the womb of your wife Ed?

Ed: No, see above. But women do this voluntarily everyday with abortion.

jtb: So your "no" means that you disagree with the Bible (which, of course, doesn't condemn abortion either).

2.) brig: Is it morally acceptable to "ravish" or rather rape women?

Ed: No.

jtb: Again, the Bible is wrong.

brig: 3.) Is it morally acceptable to destroy the houses of worship of non-Christian people (such as was done in KristalNacht)?

Ed: No, see above how Christ teaches freedom of conscience.

jtb: ...In the Book of Ed, which only you can read.

brig: 4.) Is it morally permissible to search a town to flush out the non-believers and if any are found to murder every inhabitant of that town?

Ed: No, see above.


jtb:"No" in the Book of Ed, "Yes" in the rest of the Bible.

Isn't this a Biblical contradiction?

brig: 5.) Is it morally acceptable to take the women and children of a conquered nation for your own?

Ed: Depends on the situation with children. Though of course the adult women have a choice, see above.

jtb: If the "adult women" aren't virgins, or aren't among the virgins selected as "wives", they have no choice at all: they are to be massacred.

...Whoops, I forgot. You don't read the Bible, so you didn't know that.

brig: 6.) Is it morally acceptable to force a woman to become your wife (thereby taking away her free will) and consumating that act with rape?

Ed: No.

jtb: So the Bible is wrong.

...And so it goes. You are still pretending that the Bible is the blueprint for human morality, even though you keep disagreeing with it.

Why is that, Ed?
No, see above where I dealt with all of this.
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Old 02-20-2004, 02:05 AM   #30
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Ed:
Quote:
See above where I addressed all of these issues. Don't you read the responses people make to your posts?
Was this an attempt at humor?
Quote:
brig: There is NO reason, sinful nature or not, to committ genocide. Any person with a moral conscience shouldn't even have to think twice about such things. If your faith has retarded your moral conscience to such a degree that you cannot see the immorality of slaughtering of innocence, raping women, ripping unborn children from the wombs of their mothers, capturing other tribes and enslaving their women and children, etc ... I am afraid you are lost and no amount of religion and prayer can save you from the moral void your interpretation of your faith has twisted your conscience into.

Since they were destroyed for what they did, ie rebelling against the king of the universe, and preventing his representatives, ie israel, from acquiring their land. So it does not qualify as genocide. Unless you are going to say that capital punishment for all murderers is genocide of murderers.
Yes, it IS genocide. It is the slaughter of an ENTIRE NATION for the "crimes" of some of their ancestors.

It is directly equivalent to slaughtering 6 million Jews for the "crime" of having Jesus killed.

Do YOU believe it is "moral" to kill all the relatives of a murderer, and everyone else in the town where he grew up? Because that's what you're saying.
Quote:
How do you know? Have you encountered a morally perfect being?
I have encountered plenty of people who are more "morally perfect" than God.
Quote:
Yes, it was his doing but only indirectly, that is what these verses mean. He allowed the Assyrians to attack the Babylonians and do all these things. But he did not directly cause these things, as we know from Job, how he allows evil things to happen sometimes for greater good. And he does not endorse such behaviors.
That last sentence is pure fiction. God does indeed endorse such behaviors, repeatedly, throughout the Old Testament.
Quote:
jtb: So genocide is a "higher standard" of morality? What a great man Hitler was! He held the German nation to a higher standard than those degenerate democracies!

No, the higher standard was not allowing unbelievers to be a part of the nation.
Just as the "higher standard" of the Nazis was not allowing Jews to be a part of the nation.

Note, also, that both "higher standards" involve not just eviction, but slaughter. At least the Nazis had a BETTER reason for this: a child of the "Jewish race" can never become an Aryan and will have "half-breed" children at best, whereas an Amalekite child CAN be raised as a "true believer".
Quote:
jtb: BTW, Jesus never advocated religious freedom. The Christians merely lacked the power to compel obedience.

Of course they could have, ever hear of the jewish sicarii and their knives? The disciples could have quite easily just threatened to stab and kill someone if they didnt convert. But instead they just used arguments and evidence. And then left them alone if they didnt convert.
They were a small sect of heretical Jews. Just how long do you think they would have survived if they wandered around Jerusalem stabbing everyone who didn't join them?

Chritianity would have been exterminated in a few days.
Quote:
You are partially right, technically there were two simultaneous reasons for destroying them, the reason I gave and the reason you gave. What different rules?
The reason I gave is the Biblical one.

As for the different rules: why not try this? Read the Bible. Specifically, Deuteronomy 20. The different rules for the two groups of people are made perfectly clear.

...OK, I forgot that you don't read the Bible. So I'll quote the relevant section:
Quote:
Deuteronomy 20:12 And if it will make no peace with thee, but will make war against thee, then thou shalt besiege it:

20:13 And when the LORD thy God hath delivered it into thine hands, thou shalt smite every male thereof with the edge of the sword:

20:14 But the women, and the little ones, and the cattle, and all that is in the city, even all the spoil thereof, shalt thou take unto thyself; and thou shalt eat the spoil of thine enemies, which the LORD thy God hath given thee.

20:15 Thus shalt thou do unto all the cities which are very far off from thee, which are not of the cities of these nations.

20:16 But of the cities of these people, which the LORD thy God doth give thee for an inheritance, thou shalt save alive nothing that breatheth:


20:17 But thou shalt utterly destroy them; namely, the Hittites, and the Amorites, the Canaanites, and the Perizzites, the Hivites, and the Jebusites; as the LORD thy God hath commanded thee
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jtb: No, Deut. 21:13-14 does NOT say that, and you KNOW it does not say that, because we have discussed this before. The woman CANNOT choose divorce. Only the MAN can end the "relationship", if he "has no delight in her" he can get rid of her.

Yes, the man has the primary option but she can control it by not delighting him.
Try telling a rape victim that she is in control of the situation because she can choose "not to delight him".
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jtb: So the Bible is wrong.

...And so it goes. You are still pretending that the Bible is the blueprint for human morality, even though you keep disagreeing with it.

Why is that, Ed?


No, see above where I dealt with all of this.
You "dealt with this" by rejecting the Bible and then denying that you have done so!
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