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Old 09-10-2003, 07:26 AM   #31
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Default Re: existence of God

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Originally posted by premjan
if God did not exist, man would have to invent him.
-- I forget who
Voltaaaaaire
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Old 09-10-2003, 11:30 AM   #32
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Originally posted by GPLindsey
The fun part about Biblical inerrancy is that it rests on the notion that God is the author--it is his Word, not ours.


Inspired does not equal Gods word. For one, all words are arrived at by convention and since God is not part of this convention the author is inspired to use conventional words to write about God etc.
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//
How different authors over the centuries interpreted words as they were writing the Bible is irrelevant--God would make sure that the NIV in my hands in the 21 century accurately portrayed his meaning. Satan is Satan!!


????

The only requirement here is that you are just as inspired to read it as the author was when he wrote it.
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If God isn't the author and the Bible isn't inerrant, then of course everything falls into place--the contradictions, blunders, revisions, etc., are the result of fallable humans writing and rewriting their histories and legends over many centuries. The Bible is still facinating, but it is not infallible.
The bible still is inerrant except maybe for some small translation errors which the inspired reader should be able to identify as he reads it. Had the translators been sufficiently inspired to do their work properly they would not exist.
 
Old 09-10-2003, 03:11 PM   #33
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Oh my . . . a day of bad connections and what one misses. . . .

First things first. . . .

Corrections:

In a previous reply to beastmaster I indicated that the Chronicler may have used "Satan" in other places. Wrong. Worse, I indicated that the word is used without the indefinite article. Also wrong, it is used without the definite article.

beastmaster:

Forsyth gives a great discussion of the Chronicles passage:

Quote:
Around 400 B.C. we find the Chronicler attempting in a tolerant spirit to unite the contradictory elements with an idealized and conciliatory vision of the past. He uses both northern and southern historical traditions, for example. He ignores the bitter power struggle between Zadokite priests and Levites. . . . . . . So it is surely significant that here and only here in the whole of the canonical Old Testamet do we find a reference to an independent spiritual force named "Satan," must the definite article and minus any identification with the heavenly court.

[Forsyth discusses the difference between the Deuteronomistic History and the Chronicler.--Ed.]

Comparison of the two works reveals how much the Chronicler revised the older historical traditions according to the spirit of the priestly code. The David of Samuel-Kings, for example, is essentially a political leader of genius, capable both of wide vision and of self-serving, corrupt uses of power; the Chronicler's David is a proto-priest. . . .

One result of this ecclesiastical transformation of David is the omission of his less creditable acts. The Chronicler ignores the unsavory episode of Uriah the Hittite. . . . [Forsyth lists others. The Chronicler also omits unsavory acts of Solomon.--Ed.] . . . But there was one sin of David's that could not be passed over: the taking of the census. This episode could not be avoided, because its aftermath was the revelation of the site on which the temple was to be built. But the story still underwent a striking change in the hands of the Chronicler.

[Forsyth discusses Davidic census of 2 Samuel.--Ed.]

This version of the story makes Yahweh the cause of both of David's sin and of his punishment. A further difficulty for the pious and patriotic Chronicler was that no immediate cause of Yahweh's anger is given, . . . . . . the Chronicler could not accept a Yahweh who inflicts both sin and punishment, so his account begins: "And Satan stood up against Israel, and provoked David to number Israel."

. . . .

David thus retains the holy character with which the Chronicler endows him, since Satan is responsible for his sin. Similarly, Yahweh is protected from blame, and his punishment is not simply malicious; it fits the theory of just reward and punishment that had become crucial to Judaism.
Thus, this does result in a shift of blame. In the DH, David has commited crimes which one can use as an "excuse" for YHWH to squish him . . . actually seventy thousand poor slobs. Granted, YHWH ordering David to do something "bad" so he can punish him for it seems rather "unjust;" however, it is an explanation that did not seem to bother the DH. Indeed, Ezekiel explains the problematic requirement for child sacrifice by having YHWH admit he sinned and made people do bad in order to punish them.

Consider the Greek gods . . . smite and squish with abandon . . . oh, sorry, you wandered into the wrong neck of the woods? Hera is pissed that she is not as beautiful as Aphrodite? I guess your city gets flattened. Indeed, in a wonderful scene in the Iliad, Hera sleeps with Zeus to get him to promise her she may squish Troy. He agrees then reminds her that when he should decide to squish a city she likes she cannot complain!

These are very human gods--venile, selfish, sometimes rash.

This type of god does not fit later theism--certainly not the Chronicler. So he had to "elevate" someone else to "do the dirty work" This may not satisfy us--it did not satisfy later generations. We have the whole crap of trying to figure out why--in the Chronicles--YHWH did not just punish Satan. Why did he have the power to fuck with David?

The "fallen angel" or "great rebel" has not yet entered the picture. Thus, I would agree:

Quote:
But I am hesitant to exclude the possibility that this is a figurative anthropomorphism, akin to Father Time or Old Man Winter. I have significant doubts that the passage refers to Satan as the Devil, an agent with an agenda, an "individual."
I will "nitpick" in that he is more in this passage than a simple anthropomorphism--such as "the power of god" that walks around. "The Destroyer" is a separate figure in Exodus, and Satan is a separate figure in Job. Both are under the control of YHWH/El. Indeed, people who see Satan in a modern sense--having read too much Neil Gaiman--will have a "problem" with Job because, clearly, Satan is an agent of YHWH.

In the Chronicles passage, he is independent. He is, however, also just a literary device. The Chronicler does not explain "why" or "how" Satan does what he does--he is not dealing with a "fallen angel/rebel" mythology we all grew up with.

Indeed, my mistake in assuming the Chronicler used him in further passages demonstrates that he is just a literary device--otherwise, the Chronicler could have used him to explain away all ills in his rewriting of the history: "Satan made Solomon love foreign women," for example.

Contradiction:

I still think it is a great contradiction because it demonstrates as shift in theological understanding: comfortable with Big Daddy being unjust to not-so-comfortable.

From the standpoint of showing "mistakes" in the Bible as a whole, yes, you can show some rather more "horrible" ones.

Now for comedy relief. . . .

Magnus:

Quote:
There is no contradiction in ways to be saved. John 3:16 sums it up.
Actually not, Jn "sums up" salvation when he states that one must be "born from above." [See thread on genealogies for the explanation.--Ed.] Good men, like Nicodemus, who are not inherently saved--"from above"--can never be saved.

This, of course, differs from Mk--though the effect is the same. Jn and the Synoptics preach an exclusionary "us versus them" message which makes perfect sense when one considers these texts were written for groups.

As always, I find it interesting how a misunderstanding of the source-texts leads us to a better understanding. Keep up the "good work."

Peter:

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I myself have never believed in inerrancy and find it hard to devote much time to it.
You have to think back when you were young and innocent . . . go back . . . go back . . . Baywatch was a hit, no one knew Clinton was a liar, the Red Sox still lost. . . .

It will always be an "eye opener" to anyone raised with a Jewish or Christian religion that the Bible is "wrong"--that it is inaccurate. This is a rite of passage.

Even the most religious of scholars recognize the errancy and find ways around it--which generally do not work, of course.

As you note, for biblical scholars "proving" errancy is like proving water is wet.

However, new people to this site and to biblical literature in general will continue to be surprised.

Celsus:

Nothing like multiple authorship . . . I think Isaac has twenty-seven different ages, depending on the commentator!

GPLindsey:

Quote:
If God isn't the author and the Bible isn't inerrant, then of course everything falls into place--the contradictions, blunders, revisions, etc., are the result of fallable humans writing and rewriting their histories and legends over many centuries. The Bible is still facinating, but it is not infallible.
Indeed.

However, that removes the feeling of objective certainty that people have of their religion--something to "point to" and say, "See?!! I AM right!" This is why the justice tried to keep a monument to some of the ten commandments--give the impression that the "normal" and "accepted" opinion is that his religion is "correct."

Now . . . more comedy. . . .

Quote:
The bible still is inerrant except maybe for some small translation errors. . . .
BWA!HA!HA!HA!HA! . . . oh . . . you were serious?

Most unfortunate. . . .

THAT is the very embodiment of the problem I describe for GPLindsey. Some just cannot let go of the certainty. They will believe the delusion no matter how ridiculous.

Nevertheless, the poster never could reconcile the genealogies or birth narratives of Junior other than to just claim they are the same by some fiat.

This approach to perspective on reality is as successful as burying one's head in the sands of the banks of the River DeNile--uniform darkness with no light.

--J.D.

Reference:

Neil Forsyth. The Old Enemy: Satan & the Combat Myth. Princeton: Princeton University Press, 1987

[Edited to reference the reference.--Ed.]
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Old 09-10-2003, 06:10 PM   #34
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In regards to inspiration, the Rocky Mountains might "inspire" a landscape artist to pick up his brush and make a painting. However, the mountains would not control what the artist painted in any way, and would of course be completely unaware they were being painted, because they are not aware of anything. This is your every day type of "inspiration."

However, when Christians speak of the Bible being "inspired" and inerrant, they mean that God was an active agent steering the authors to choose the right words, convey just the right meanings, etc. His intervention didn't stop with the original scribes, but extended to all the scholars over the years who translated and retranslated the original texts, so that erroneous interpretations of what this or that ancient Hebrew word "meant" wouldn't enter into the Bible. The inspired Rocky Mountain artist produced his painting entirely with his own skills. The Bible authors and translators could not have done so without God's guiding hand to prevent errors.

So I disagree with you--in any meaningful sense, "inspired" by God means that it was written by God. The scribes and translators were more like automatons, or Charlie McCarthy if you will, sitting in God's lap as God moved his lips.

Also, I still think my contradiction was the best. The business about Jesus saying the day being 12 hours is a weak criticism, because saying the day was 24 hours would have been unintelligible to his listeners. In fact, the day isn't even 24 hours, it is 23 hours and some lenghtly fraction, and fractions would have been unintelligible as well since they weren't invented yet. DOUBLE in fact, to a timeless God, the length of the day is not fixed, since the Earth rotated more quickly billions of years ago and continues to slow down. What was Jesus to tell his listeners--an accurate, to the fraction "average" length of the day, from the time of Earth's creation to its demise?
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Old 09-10-2003, 07:39 PM   #35
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Why would the bible contain such "obvious" contradictions when the church has had every opportunity over the past seventeen hundred years to refine and perfect its message?
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Old 09-10-2003, 09:07 PM   #36
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Quote:
Originally posted by GPLindsey

However, when Christians speak of the Bible being "inspired" and inerrant, they mean that God was an active agent steering the authors to choose the right words, convey just the right meanings, etc.


You mean like a third party? Don't be silly. There is just as much inspiration in Shakespeare as there is in the bible and who do you think was pushing his pen?
Quote:


His intervention didn't stop with the original scribes, but extended to all the scholars over the years who translated and retranslated the original texts, so that erroneous interpretations of what this or that ancient Hebrew word "meant" wouldn't enter into the Bible. The inspired Rocky Mountain artist produced his painting entirely with his own skills. The Bible authors and translators could not have done so without God's guiding hand to prevent errors.

The bible was written by gnostics who were omniscient because they had noetic vision. According to the bible this is within our reach and is actually our mandate in the bible (to obtain the mind of God and know the depth, width and breadth of the Lord our God).

What I think is funny is that you don't believe much of the bible but insist that God's intervention extended even to translators who wanted to prove their own perspective (eg. "sola scriptura" and now the "gender equality" versions).

Before we can really understand the bible it's content must be prior to us by nature and therefore second to us when we read about it in the bible. I think Jn. 5:39-40 clearly tells us that this is possible and it just is not good enough to read the bible to gain understanding. In fact, if we do we will be misled by it and that is exactly what the mythmakers had in mind when they added the religious component to the scriptures. It could be argued here that Jews are mesmerized by it and that Christians are enslaved to it (in my view many so called 'Christians' represent the second beast of Rev 14 and many posters here have found deliverance from that kind of slavery).
 
Old 09-11-2003, 06:24 AM   #37
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Devilnaut

Two answers to your question (why didn't the scribes correct contradictions, if they indeed are).

First, the idea that the 'Buybull' needs to be completely inerrant is an idea of more recent vintage. One doubts that Eusebius would lose sleep over any obvious contradiction, though 19th century apologists would.

Second, the Church has not had 1,700 years to change things. The OT was fixed and unalterable before Christianity arose. And why would the Church worry about NT contradictions? They controlled access to the Bible early on (and at a time when inerrancy was a foreign concept). By the time the NT was available to the masses via the printing press (and the laity could discover contradictions) it was impossible to put the genie back in the bottle.
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Old 09-11-2003, 07:57 AM   #38
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Devilnaut:

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Why would the bible contain such "obvious" contradictions when the church has had every opportunity over the past seventeen hundred years to refine and perfect its message?
Indeed! The funny thing is that NONE of the authors thought they would be in the same book with the other guy! When Mt used Mk as a source, he sure as shit did not expect Mk to be there with him. Similarly, the Chronicler did not expect to have Samuels-Kings there to show everyone his changes--he expected his history to supplant his sources.

What is more interesting is that there was some comfort with "keeping stuff" even if it was uncomfortable. Take Genesis . . . please . . . whoever blended the J and P stories sure as hell could have harmonized them. For whatever reason, he kept the texts. Why not at least get the name of your deity consistent?

The many contradictions and repetitions in the story were noticed by early commentators.

--J.D.
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Old 09-11-2003, 10:31 AM   #39
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There is no contradiction in ways to be saved. John 3:16 sums it up.
Umm.. if John 3:16 sums up everything I need to do in order to be saved, then I'm saved whether I like it or not with no effort or statement of faith whatsoever required on my part. If salvation is summed up as "God gave his only son so we wouldn't fry forever", then, well, the only son has been given up (although one has to ask what definition of "give" we're using here, since God appears to have gotten his kid back). John 3:16 says nothing about accepting or believing in Jesus, nothing about baptism or grace or anything.
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Old 09-11-2003, 10:39 AM   #40
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I'll point this out to you before some Theist does, Calzear:

John 3:16 (KJV): For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
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