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Old 04-28-2012, 07:08 PM   #41
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etc. The writer of Mark is obviously not a Palestinian Jew. That is sheer apologetic fantasy
Let me try that one: "Mark" was a Christian passable in Koine Greek but with Latin as his mother tongue. That "Mark" heard a Palestinian Jew (let say Peter) talking in Aramaic and immediately translated (word by word) by someone not expert for that kind of job. That was annoted some short time after, likely abbreviated, with some Aramaic transliteration in Greek. Some 20 years later, these got used inside Mark's gospel.
Would that explain the linguistic make up of the gospel?
I am not interested in defending Bart. This is only a hypothesis.
I have no problem with a Aramaic speaker being involved as a translator. No reason that Mark could not have consulted with someone as he was writing his fiction, just as any writer might.
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Old 04-28-2012, 07:10 PM   #42
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Indeed if canonical Mark is original why isn't 'Syro-Phoenician' passed on to Matthew? These transferences do occur in language. How many white people know what a shizzle is or a similar African American construct and yet pass it on in everyday speech? I am not sure that a writer would naturally 'correct' Syro-Phoenician to Canaanite.
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Old 04-28-2012, 07:13 PM   #43
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Originally Posted by Bernard Muller View Post
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Originally Posted by Vorkosigan
etc. The writer of Mark is obviously not a Palestinian Jew. That is sheer apologetic fantasy
Let me try that one: "Mark" was a Christian passable in Koine Greek but with Latin as his mother tongue. That "Mark" heard a Palestinian Jew (let say Peter) talking in Aramaic and immediately translated (word by word) by someone not expert for that kind of job. That was annoted some short time after, likely abbreviated, with some Aramaic transliteration in Greek. Some 20 years later, these got used inside Mark's gospel.
So maybe it's possible that some Palestinian story could have ended up in the Marcan gospel. Hey, yeah, it's possible. The story is set in Palestine after all. Christianity certainly arose from a Semitic cultural context, so one should expect Semitic cultural artifacts in the text. You also find a few "mon ami"s in a Cara Black Parisian murder mystery as well. The Marcan writer was collecting traditions. They were from "trusted" tradition sources.
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Old 04-28-2012, 07:16 PM   #44
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Indeed if canonical Mark is original why isn't 'Syro-Phoenician' passed on to Matthew? These transferences do occur in language. How many white people know what a shizzle is or a similar African American construct and yet pass it on in everyday speech? I am not sure that a writer would naturally 'correct' Syro-Phoenician to Canaanite.
One (probably the first) of the Matthean writers frequently fixed up (or omitted) Mark's strange references.
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Old 04-28-2012, 07:22 PM   #45
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Maybe or the transmission of the gospels is more complicated than many of us would care to admit.
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Old 04-28-2012, 07:25 PM   #46
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Here is what the Clementine Homilies do with these two accounts:

"There is amongst us one Justa, a Syro-Phoenician, by race a Canaanite, whose daughter was oppressed with a grievous disease. (... the account of the healing of her daughter by Jesus follows). She, therefore, having taken up a manner of life according to the (Jewish) law, was, with the daughter who had been healed, driven out from her home by her husband, whose sentiments were opposed to ours. But she, being faithful to her engagements, and being in affluent circumstances, remained a widow herself. And, abstaining from marriage for the sake of her daughter, she bought two boys and educated them, and had them in place of sons. And they being educated from their boyhood with Simon Magus, have learned all things concerning him." [Clementine Homilies 2.19 - 21]
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Old 04-28-2012, 07:26 PM   #47
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The Diatessaron:

And he entered into a certain house, and desired that no man should know it; and he could not be hid. But straightway a Canaanitish woman, whose daughter had an unclean spirit, heard of him. And that woman was a Gentile of Emesa of Syria. And she came out after him, crying out, and saying, Have mercy upon me, my Lord, thou son of David; for my daughter is seized in an evil way by Satan. And he answered her not a word. And his disciples came and besought him, and said, Send her away: for she crieth after us. He answered and said unto them, I was not sent except to the sheep that are gone astray of the house of Israel. But she came and worshipped him, and said, My Lord, help me, have mercy upon me.
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Old 04-28-2012, 07:30 PM   #48
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The accusation of Tertullian (Justin?) that Marcion removed the passage from his gospel:

As the saying goes, let us get down to it: to your task, Marcion: remove even this from the gospel, I am not sent but to the lost sheep of the house of Israel, and, It is not <meet> to take away the children's bread and give it to dogs:c for this gives the impression that Christ belongs to Israel. I have plenty of acts, if you take away his words. Take away Christ's sayings, and the facts will speak; See how he enters into the synagogue: surely to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. See how he offers the bread of his doctrine to the Israelites first: surely he is giving them preference as sons. See how as yet he gives others no share of it: surely he is passing them by, like dogs. Yet on whom would he have been more ready to bestow it than on strangers to the Creator, if he himself had not above all else belonged to the Creator?
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Old 04-28-2012, 07:31 PM   #49
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Bernard Muller View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Vorkosigan
etc. The writer of Mark is obviously not a Palestinian Jew. That is sheer apologetic fantasy
Let me try that one: "Mark" was a Christian passable in Koine Greek but with Latin as his mother tongue. That "Mark" heard a Palestinian Jew (let say Peter) talking in Aramaic and immediately translated (word by word) by someone not expert for that kind of job. That was annoted some short time after, likely abbreviated, with some Aramaic transliteration in Greek. Some 20 years later, these got used inside Mark's gospel.
Would that explain the linguistic make up of the gospel?
I am not interested in defending Bart. This is only a hypothesis.
Your suggestion makes very little sense. If you found a writing in 99% Greek, 0.5% Aramaic and 0.5% Latin you would NOT assume that Latin or Aramaic was the author's mother tongue.

The fact that we have a writing in 99% Greek then we can logically infer that the mother tongue of the author was Greek.

This is so very basic.

Ehrman is horribly illogical. There is NOT even two consecutive sentences of Aramaic in gMark just some phrases here and there and some in Latin.

Ehrman's Did Jesus Exist ? is more than 99% English and no-one would think that his mother tongue was Greek, except perhaps Ehrman himself.
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Old 04-28-2012, 07:32 PM   #50
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Ephrem's hybrid text which agrees in part with Mark and in part with Matthew:

http://books.google.com/books?id=i41...0woman&f=false
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