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10-01-2011, 01:05 AM | #1 | ||||||
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Does 'An Abortion Born Out of Time' (1 Cor 15:8) Derive from Ex. 13.12?
I was sitting by the fireplace reading my edition of Rashi's Commentary on Exodus with this reference to the earliest followers of Paul on my mind:
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10-01-2011, 06:58 AM | #2 | |||
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Hi stephan Huller,
Did you mean "the abortion allows that which follows to also not be a firstborn," when you wrote, "this utterance emphasizes that the abortion allows that which follows to also be a firstborn."? That seems to be the indication of the following passage you quoted. Vincent's Word Study is interesting here: Quote:
Warmly, Jay Raskin Quote:
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10-01-2011, 10:17 AM | #3 | ||||
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Yes, that's what I meant. It was very late and I was (and am) very tired. That is an interesting reference you bring up. What I find interesting is that no one has ever figured out what Paul means by any of this. The only clue I can see is that there heretics took an interest in these words but even here we can't figure out why they took an interest in this stuff. It is intriguing to me at least that the heretics also took an interest defined the concept of Christ being a 'firstborn' through an interpretation of Exodus chapter 13. This goes to the core of what I mean when I say that there is a 'Jewishness' to Marcion and the heretics. The Church Fathers (except for the Alexandrian tradition) don't approach the scriptures in a 'Jewish manner.' The heretics do.
I was just looking to see if Marqe makes reference to this concept of the abortion and discovered that he does not, nor does he (in the surviving material which only covers about 1/50th of what must have been originally there) make explicit citation of Exodus 13.12,13. Yet he does make reference to Exodus 13,14 and we can already here begin to see how there is a 'gnostic ring' to his language: Quote:
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10-01-2011, 10:33 AM | #4 | |
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GRS Mead seems clear on what it means.
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10-01-2011, 10:46 AM | #5 |
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Grant does the same thing but even he doesn't seem convinced by the explanation. I think I found the reference in Philo but Kirby's site is down (so I can't cut and paste right now). Philo seems to say that there are two kinds of 'firstborns' - the virtuous male firstborn which belongs to the Lord and the bad passionate type which I tentatively take to be what Paul is referencing here. In other words, he was 'sinful' as an abortion but through cleaving to the true firstborn is redeemed. I am rushing out the door but I think Paul is tapping into the central myth of the firstborn but plugging in the Gentiles/proselytes as being redeemed through dying (as an abortion perhaps also) and resurrecting with Christ. I have always thought that baptism derives from the death of the sinful Egyptians in the water (not Israel passing through the water and not getting wet).
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10-01-2011, 03:24 PM | #6 |
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The word “ektroma’ can also be used for a prematurely born child who survives, not just a stillborn birth or abortion (See J. Munck’s “Paulus tanquam abortivus,” in A.J.B. Higgins [ed.] “N.T. Essays: Studies in memory of T.W. Manson, pp. 180-95”). So it may be that the choice of ‘ektroma’ in the so-called Ignatian letter to the Romans (IgnRom. 9:2) was made with size in view. The author of the Ignatians (Peregrinus, I submit) wanted to engage in self-depreciation to a degree that would put him even lower than Paul. Paul’s name means ‘child, little one;” so Peregrinus, as a ‘preemie,” was deferentially assuming a status smaller and less significant than Paul.
In this scenario the proto-orthodox interpolator of 1 Corinthians 15: 3-11 would have borrowed the ‘ektroma’ idea from the letters of Peregrinus. As part of his subordination of Paul, the interpolator made him profess to be the smallest and least significant of all: a mere preemie. |
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