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10-11-2006, 02:17 PM | #1 |
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Help with timeline of Christianity
I'm trying to put together a timeline of events relevent to the devleopment of Christianity. Here is what I have so far. Any help is appreciated:
165 BCE - Maccabee defeats Greek Army 140 BCE - Hasmonean Kingdom established 44 BCE - Death of Julius Ceasar 37 BCE - Herod declared King of the Jews by Roman authority, ending Hasmonean rule 20 BCE - 40 CE Jewish theologean Philo integrates Greek philosophy and Jewish theology 4 BCE - 33 CE - Supposed lifetime of Jesus 37 CE - Death of Pontious Pilate 39 CE - Death of John the Baptist according to Josephus 50-70 CE - Letters of Paul written 63 CE - Jewish revolt against Roman authority in Judea 67-70 - Judea destroyed by Roman army 69-75 CE - Gospel of Mark written 80-100 CE - Gospels of Matthew and Luke written 94 CE - Josephus writes Jewish Antiquities 109 - Tacitus write Annals, possibly refers to Christians being persecuted in 64 CE 112 - Pliny the Younger write letter to Trajan about Christians 120-140 CE - Gospel of John written 132-135 CE - Bar Kokhba's Revolt 313 - Edict of Milan - Constantine allow freedom of all religions 380? - Theodosius declares Cathololocism official state religon of Rome 394 - Battle of the Frigidus, Theodosius defeats remaining pagan armies in the Empire, all of Rome now offically Christian |
10-11-2006, 02:33 PM | #2 | |||
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I'd tighten that to 48-64.
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10-11-2006, 06:39 PM | #3 |
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4 BCE - 93 CE - Supposed lifetime of the author Apollonius of Tyana
100 - 250CE - The Second Sophistic 325 CE - Council of Nicaea, summoned by Constantine (supreme 324) 325 CE - Exclusionism of Arius' "there was a time when he was not" c. 327-330 - First citation of the physical binding of the New & Old Literature (so-called "Constantine Bibles") 362 CE - Julian's invectives "The NT is a fiction of men composed by wickedness" |
10-12-2006, 07:30 AM | #4 |
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I have a problem with the Dataing of John, however there are problems with my problem.
My problem is this. According to the Talmud and to Jewish tradition, the first time the term Messiah was used was in relation to Bar Kokhba in the 130s. The only time that the word Messiah (in english translations) is present in the Bible is in the Gospel of John. Now, it would make sense to me, for a variety of reasons, including this, that the Gospel of John was written after Bar Kokhba had been designated Messiah. This would explain why John is so anti-Jewish, deepens the split between Jews and Christians and why John calls Jesus Messiah. Now, either the parts of John that call Jesus Messiah were added later, or this whole business or Messiah isn't as well defined as I think it is, or something has been lost in translation, or John was written in the 130s, after Bar Kokhba had been named Messiah. Thoughts? |
10-12-2006, 08:52 AM | #5 | |
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10-12-2006, 09:28 AM | #6 |
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Interesting, but doesn't cristoß = Christ?
Are Christ and Messiah eqivilent? |
10-12-2006, 10:06 AM | #7 |
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That's what John says. I see not reason to suppose that the other gospel writers believed otherwise.
Certainly John is using a Hebrew word in a way that it was not originally used. But I don't see that as a problem for the credibility of John's gospel or for that matter the synoptics. |
10-12-2006, 10:20 AM | #8 |
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No, my issue is that Bar Kokhba was supposedly the first (only) person to be declared "The Messiah" according to the Talmud in the 130s.
I'm trying to figure if John was written in opposition to this declaration of Bar Kokhba as the Messiah, by delcaring Jesus the Messiah, since this would make sense in many ways, and, at least in the English translations, only John uses the word "Messiah". |
10-12-2006, 11:21 AM | #9 |
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What is your source for the idea that Bar Kokhba was the only person to be declared the Messiah? The term was certainly in use before 130 CE.
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10-12-2006, 04:42 PM | #10 | ||
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Quote:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Simon_bar_Kokhba Quote:
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