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Old 01-07-2005, 11:26 AM   #71
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
I assume that obtaining converts to a belief in a crucified and resurrected Messiah was considered objectionable to the Jewish establishment. This seems to be true whether or not Jesus was historical.
I'd assume the establishment disagreed, and probably didn't even like this belief. But if all the conversion requires is to carry around a new idea in one's head (as opposed to doing something new/different), would this alone have prompted an active persecution?

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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
The Risen Christ did so by appearing to them.
Okay, but why differentiate between Peter, the Twelve, James, the 500, and all the apostles? Why not, for example, lump the Twelve in with the 500 (call them the 512, maybe) unless there was something special about the Twelve? And if the Twelve were special in some way, what would account for that?

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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
Apparently to make sure what he was preaching to the gentiles was OK... Paul tells us he felt compelled to check with them after preaching for three years because of a revelation from Christ. We can only speculate about unspoken motivations but it seems reasonable to wonder if questions from his audience about the legitimacy of his teachings brought about this revelation.
Exactly - he goes to make sure that what he's preaching is consistent with the "party line." Then, he says he gets a relevation (I, too, would assume it's from Christ) and goes back. But when he talks about his fear of running in vain, that's strongly suggestive that he has questions about the content of his gospel. My question is, why would the Jerusalem group be any sort of authority if both they and Paul got their information from the same source - a direct revelation from Christ?

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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
It would helpful if Paul was more explicit about when and where this information was obtained from the Lord ... Paul's lack of specificity makes it impossible to tell whether this is something a living Jesus spoke to followers or something the Risen Christ revealed to the earlier apostles.
If it's not something derived from a living Jesus, then we'd have the risen Christ saying (to Paul, earlier apostles, or both) the basic, rudimentary content that we discussed earlier (You're right about the crucified and resurrected Messiah, I'm the man, go spread the word) but also something like, "Oh, and one other thing - there's this thing about marriage ... yeah, I just about forgot - it's okay to make your livelihood from preaching." It sounds like one would have to hypothesize a really strange revelation or series of revelations.

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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
Is Paul referring to a living Jesus when he refers to "the Lord" or to God via Scripture?
Good question. I think the parallel is stronger to what Jesus is reported to have said on the topic than anything in the Jewish Scripture.

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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
If we assume that this is something the living Jesus taught then we must also assume that his former disciples in Jerusalem ignored it since this issue seems to have been a source of tension. In addition to the more obvious difficulty of original followers disobeying Christ's teaching yet continuing his ministry, you have to wonder where Paul would have heard about it.
That's a very good point; it's difficult to reconcile it all. I don't really have a good explanation of how Paul would know and follow this as a teaching of the living Jesus and how Peter would be okay with following it until people from James showed up. Perhaps different traditions of Jesus's teachings (Paul getting his from one place, the Jerusalem group from another) would explain part, perhaps different understandings (Paul vs. James) would explain it. What do you think would explain it?

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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
Not that I can see. What it does seem to contradict is the notion of a ministry in which Jesus exhibited supernatural power.
I agree completely.

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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
Unfortunately, Paul doesn't specific the source of his beliefs except a vague reference to some of them being "according to Scripture". The NASB suggests that he found scriptural support for the sacrifice at Is53:5-12 and for the resurrection at Ps16:8-ff.
It seems this would require Paul to combine only a reinterpreted Isaiah and a vague Psalm with a revelation from a (former?) man with basically no recorded past to arrive at his new belief system. It just seems like a very slim basis for motivating all that Paul did.

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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
I think the "standard model" is easier to understand but it seems to me to utterly fail to explain why there appears to be such a total disconnect between the ministry and the post-resurrection gospel or why the Gospel depiction of the ministry lacks anything unique except content that seems to have been retrojected from later beliefs. In the end, I consider the evidence too much of a mess to allow a reliable conclusion either way. That doesn't stop me from having fun defending the minority position, though.
Always happy to provide someone with an opportunity for fun

I think you're right; reliability will probably always be elusive, or at least elusive as long as I'm doing this sort of thing. The disconnect between the ministry (less the fantastic events) in the gospels and what we know of Paul's gospel has always struck me as peculiar. Having struggled through Bultmann, I also agree with you about the scarcity of unique aspects of Jesus's reported ministry. Right now, a ministry of some sort still seems to best explain to me what we can reasonably assume to be true. However, the nature of the ministry might have been one I haven't given much consideration to (maybe it would be considered on scholarship's fringe, or maybe it was a combination of elements that's difficult to work out). Then again, maybe there wasn't a ministry - it's a possiblity. :huh:

Hope to address omitted points as time permits.

Cheers,

V.
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Old 01-07-2005, 01:07 PM   #72
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Originally Posted by Vivisector
But if all the conversion requires is to carry around a new idea in one's head (as opposed to doing something new/different), would this alone have prompted an active persecution?
If they just kept their beliefs in their heads, I doubt anyone would have persecuted them. Unfortunately for the Church of God, part of the gospel was to spread the gospel. I assume that the persecution resulted from being too successful in converting fellow Jews to this new belief.

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Okay, but why differentiate between Peter, the Twelve, James, the 500, and all the apostles?
I would assume that Cephas warrants special mention for being first but apparently also for having established churches (1Cor3:22). James has his independent reputation to warrant special mention. Paul gives us no idea who "the Twelve" are but we can assume they were a known group to his readers. Whether "the 500" was a known group or hyperbole can't be determined from what little Paul says.

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And if the Twelve were special in some way, what would account for that?
Paul doesn't tell us enough but he also gives no indication that they were former followers of a living, preaching Jesus. They could simply have been a group intended to represent the 12 tribes for all we know.

Quote:
My question is, why would the Jerusalem group be any sort of authority if both they and Paul got their information from the same source - a direct revelation from Christ?
Paul makes it clear that he does not consider them to have any greater authority than himself but seems to be acknowledging that they are recognized as authorities by others. It seems to me that the most obvoius source of this authority is the mere fact that they were the first to preach the gosple of the Risen Christ. Does it make sense for Paul to disparage their "high reputation" if it was founded on their prior relationship with the living Jesus?

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It sounds like one would have to hypothesize a really strange revelation or series of revelations.
That sounds exactly like what Paul describes as taking place in at least some of the churches. It is no more strange than the same claims taking place in many churches today. You don't have to look very hard to find churches in modern times where members claim to have obtained revealed knowledge from the Lord or folks speaking in tongues.

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I think the parallel is stronger to what Jesus is reported to have said on the topic than anything in the Jewish Scripture.
But what was the source for the written report? Did they consult a collection of sayings the living Jesus spoke or have they put later revelations into the mouth of a depiction of a living Jesus? Don't the written accounts differ with regard to what they attribute to Jesus?

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That's a very good point; it's difficult to reconcile it all. I don't really have a good explanation of how Paul would know and follow this as a teaching of the living Jesus and how Peter would be okay with following it until people from James showed up. Perhaps different traditions of Jesus's teachings (Paul getting his from one place, the Jerusalem group from another) would explain part, perhaps different understandings (Paul vs. James) would explain it. What do you think would explain it?
Within the context of an assumed living, preaching Jesus, I think we have to conclude that he didn't teach anything on the subject.

Quote:
It seems this would require Paul to combine only a reinterpreted Isaiah and a vague Psalm with a revelation from a (former?) man with basically no recorded past to arrive at his new belief system. It just seems like a very slim basis for motivating all that Paul did.
How does assuming knowledge of a pre-execution ministry make his radical conversion and subsequent behavior more rational? You seem to be suggesting that Paul totally ignores the aspect of Jesus that provides a reasonable motivation for his behavior. That doesn't make any sense to me.

Quote:
The disconnect between the ministry (less the fantastic events) in the gospels and what we know of Paul's gospel has always struck me as peculiar.
I think the evidence can be understood to support either a mythical construct or two separate belief systems akin to Maccoby's theory.
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Old 01-08-2005, 05:49 PM   #73
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Originally Posted by Chili
It is bright and early enough here this morning, Sheshbazzar, to suggest that the clothes they rent was to change their identity as former pursuer of worldly riches to the new pursuer of heavenly richess. It is this same cloak, now rent, that must be annihilated on the inside as well for it is the cloak that makes the man and the man is human in the image of the cloak he wears. The mandate to succeed is the new cloak Jesus wore that never would be rent lest he failed and became the final impostor as Galilean.
Kal-asher hu min-ha'ameth e'shama b'koli :
v'atem tir'u eth-ben-ha'adam yo'shev li'min yah'weh
u'ba im-an'ney ha'sha'ma'eem :
al-te'hu kh'ca'meem b'ey'ney'ka : Thanks again Chili.
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Old 01-08-2005, 08:47 PM   #74
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Kal-asher hu min-ha'ameth e'shama b'koli :
v'atem tir'u eth-ben-ha'adam yo'shev li'min yah'weh
u'ba im-an'ney ha'sha'ma'eem :
al-te'hu kh'ca'meem b'ey'ney'ka : Thanks again Chili.
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You are welcome.
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Old 01-13-2005, 09:24 PM   #75
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Vivisector,

In case you missed it, this thread has some interesting and apparently relevant information regarding preChristian interpretation of Isaiah's Suffering Servant as the Messiah.
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Old 01-14-2005, 08:28 AM   #76
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Thanks, Amaleq. Real life has gotten in the way of doing much in the way of posting, so I've had to adopt lurk mode for the most part. But I'll certainly keep an eye on the thread.

Cheers,

V.
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