Dean Anderson

Most people here are probably familiar with Judges 1:19

There is currently a thread going on in GRD discussing this passage, and a disagreement has started about the proper interpretation of the verse.

More specifically, we have Christians saying that when the verse says that "he" could not drive out the people with chariots of iron, the "he" is obviously referring to Judah. We also have atheists saying that the "he" is obviously referring to Yahweh.

Does the Hebrew grammar make it clear one way or the other which of these is the intention of the writer?

Edited to add: And while we are at it, does the wording of the "Yahweh was with Judah" bit imply that Yahweh was physically walking around with him (as he is wont to do in the OT) or is it just a standard bit of Hebrew phraseology that we would think of as the equivalent of "Judah had "God" (or "fate" or "luck") on his side..."

spin

Perhaps Gen 39:2 is illustrative in that it begins in exactly the same manner as Jgs 1:19, so I'd say that the christians are right. However, the lord's favour didn't help them against the chariots of iron.


spin

Javaman

I have to believe that most atheists are saying that it doesn't matter. Either god himself or his (previously-sufficient) assistance is now no match for iron chariots. Seems to me that's the way any honest interpretation must go regarless of belief.