Freethought & Rationalism ArchiveThe archives are read only. |
04-20-2011, 08:34 AM | #21 |
Regular Member
Join Date: Nov 2004
Location: KY
Posts: 415
|
Mk 7:31 in the KJV/NKJV might be another candidate (Tyre/Sidon/Sea of Galilee/Decapolis).
|
04-20-2011, 10:15 AM | #22 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Jun 2010
Location: seattle, wa
Posts: 9,337
|
It is worth noting that Philo's LXX (the true LXX as opposed to the bullshit that is promoted as 'the LXX' and is instead a much later Christian text) there is a consistent substitution of theos for kurios in place which read only kurios in our text. Philo also seems to substitute despotes for Adonai and given his interest in distinguishing kurios as a lower hypostasis (essentially paired with theos and representing the power of judgment as opposed to mercy) I wouldn't be at all surprised if despotes is in fact the title of God Almighty (as opposed again to kurios which is a subordinate divinity).
|
04-20-2011, 11:10 AM | #23 | ||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Jul 2008
Location: Location: eastern North America
Posts: 1,468
|
Quote:
umm, if it is not too inconvenient, at your leisure, can you furnish a link to Philo's LXX? I would love to be able to read other passages from his version of LXX...(i.e. before the christians started mucking about with the text...) Quote:
From my narrow minded, bigoted, ignorant point of view, the Jews of ancient times, up to the present day, regard yahweh as the supreme deity, and not even comparable, in any fashion, with humans, or human activities, for example, slave owning. Such a rigid, narrow definition may be wholly inadequate, and I await correction by the many many scholars of this forum to correct me!! haha. The topic of this thread, as I understand it, is to identify those translations, which deviate from the ideal. How does one define "ideal"? Accurate, complete, honest, uncontaminated by contemporary thought. That would be my point of view. spin obviously has a different perspective, as is his right... According to my notion of what an "ideal" translation should embody, the idea of translating yahweh as "lord" is completely wrong, because, "lord" is a designation employed for humans (and gods, by some folks, especially uneducated people), whereas, on the contrary, "god", i.e. "theos" in greek, is the nominally correct translation of yahweh, not lord, aka kyrios, or adonai. In defense of my point of view, I have cited several biblical passages, found in texts published within the previous three or four years, which indeed translate yahweh as "jehovah", or "yahweh", NOT kyrios or "lord". In my opinion, we have not given sufficient weight to the problem of Lord Constantine. In particular, I do not believe that we have considered how he would have viewed himself: a. as a god to be obeyed by all other humans; b. as the Roman emperor supreme (having conquered all the other "emperors", owed obeisance from all living humans; c. as the "thirteenth apostle"; d. as the nominal head of the Christian church, though not recognized as such by subsequent generations of leaders, after his death. Would Nicea have taken place, without his explicit approval/funding? I attribute the distortions in LXX to him, or to his minion, Eusebius. I certainly do not accept the proposition that "kyrios", the title of Constantine, is appropriate for yahweh, much as Constantine himself, were he still alive, today, might disagree with me... avi |
||
04-20-2011, 11:13 AM | #24 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Jul 2008
Location: Location: eastern North America
Posts: 1,468
|
|
04-20-2011, 12:18 PM | #25 |
Regular Member
Join Date: Nov 2004
Location: KY
Posts: 415
|
|
04-20-2011, 01:49 PM | #26 | |||
Contributor
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
|
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
[hr=1]100[/hr]
|
|||
04-20-2011, 02:41 PM | #27 |
Regular Member
Join Date: Nov 2004
Location: KY
Posts: 415
|
Not sure it's as clear-cut as you'd like, depending as it does on a "C" variant, but there's always John 7:8, where the key Greek word is taken from the accepted Greek text in the NIV, but from the variant in the KJV/NKJV
Cheers, V. |
04-20-2011, 02:56 PM | #28 |
Regular Member
Join Date: Nov 2004
Location: KY
Posts: 415
|
And if you like the last, you might also like Mk 5:1 (Gerasenes vs. Gadarenes). NIV=Greek text, KJV/NKJV=variant ("C").
|
04-20-2011, 05:18 PM | #29 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Jun 2010
Location: seattle, wa
Posts: 9,337
|
I acknowledge the other meanings of despotes but in the case of Israel God is the slave owner hence the Marcionite and early Christian interest in apolytrosis
|
04-20-2011, 07:30 PM | #30 | |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Jan 2007
Location: Mondcivitan Republic
Posts: 2,550
|
Quote:
DCH |
|
Thread Tools | Search this Thread |
|