arnoldo

What do you think of the following excerpt which gives some very clear examples of how the existence of slavery is an embarrasment to Christianity as well?

If interested, you can read the rest of the article in the following link:
http://www.hccentral.com/eller12/part10.html

Sheshbazzar

Sorry, but that is a "What if story.." that is not supportable by any reading or translation of the actual contents of the text.
"And it shall come to pass, [that] every one that is left of all the nations which came against Jerusalem"
Does not parse as "every one that is a son of Jacob-Israel"
nor is the further substitution of "Jacob-Israel" into the text consistent with the sense of the text, nor with the entire scenario of that restoration that is laid out in the foregoing verses and chapters of Zechariah (ex8:11-23, 12:7-9) which then comes under attack by the Gentile nations (12:3, 12:9, 14:2-3)
The expectations of Gentiles ultimately worshiping in (and keeping The Feast of Tabernacles is predicated on those of the Gentiles who have "gone over", and have willingly converted to the worship of YHWH Tzabboth, and the remnant of the Gentiles that previously fought and resisted, finally being forced (14:16-19) to comply with, and to participate in the observances of the Jews -(ne "YHWH's") Sabbaths, New Moons, and all of the other Jewish/Yahwhistic "Feasts" and festivals.
Forced conformity of religious practice by all.

Sheshbazzar

It has been a long thread, and this subject has been discussed at length.-
This statement does not at all accord with the verses that have previously been discussed, nor does it agree with the positions and textual interpretations of those here who have been defending the morality of the institution of slavery as they believe or imagine it to have been conducted under OT Laws,
Nor does it agree with the positions and textual interpretations of those here who have been condemning the morality of the institution of slavery as it is presented in these OT texts.

The assertion is your own, are you sure that you want to proceed into citing and expounding upon the textual evidence which would support your contrary assertion?

Sheshbazzar

I read it, conjecture is piled upon conjecture, assumption is piled upon assumption, Wishful thinking is dressed up as being the proper or correct interpretation and explanation.
Perhaps the only thing stated with any meat on its bones, was the above cited admission;
It was, by this christans admission, a "terrible injustice" and was "evil", contrary to those arguments that have heretofore appeared in this thread positing that slavery, when it is practiced by or among believers is a wholly benign, nay, even desirable and honorable, practice and institution.
IE "God approved of slavery, therefor the practice of it has to be both moral and good"; The immoral reasoning of the immoral followers on an immoral "god".

Johnny Skeptic

Are you saying that God is not able to provide additional evidence that would convince more people to love and accept him? It won't do you any good to post any links or other evasive arguments because I will not comment on anything that you post unless you answer my question. I will not allow you to always choose whose questions get answered. That is not fair.

Exciter

Yes.
No it has been addressed, but you want to use a passage about theft to cover every crime and then try to equate it to people in prisons in the present.

It's not the same as people forced into slavery, which you keep avoiding.

lol, sschlichter. You only need to mention something once to come off as what you are...


What's the "eta" on the thousands of sources you have on the evidence on child sacrifice you have conveniently avoided posting?

storytime

I think Jewish practices is consistent with the text. I find no forced conformity on Gentile peoples other than being victims of war and then only the young virgins were saved alive.

Of course converts to Judaism would be allowed to participate in Jewish customs, but would Gentile slaves? If Gentile slaves were forced to convert to Judaism then the law against enslaving Jews would apply as the Gentile slave would no longer be a Gentile slave but a free Jewish man. Which, if the Jew wanted to keep his slave then he would not allow conversion and keep the slave in his Gentile identity. But as you say, it's a "what if" speculation on the story.

Sheshbazzar

Mind providing us with the Scriptural verse(s) of "the law against enslaving Jews" that you have in mind?

storytime

Well of course the assertion is my own based on my reading of the OT story, KJV. :Cheeky: Not only was slavery prohibited among Israelite brethren, so was their killing of one another. "Thou shalt not kill"[thy brethren]. However, God commanded them to kill almost everyone else in the land of Canaan, without pity and sparing none.

Sheshbazzar

Are you aware that the -prophetic- Book of Zechariah is dated to 520-518 B.C.?
some 800 to 1000 years later than the conquest of the Promised land under Joshua, and the time of the practice of saving young virgins alive?
Are you suggesting that Zechariah was -prophesying- (that is predicting of -future- events) about a practice that had taken place nearly a 1000 years before the time of his writing his [prophecies-???