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Old 03-29-2004, 12:15 AM   #11
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Originally Posted by capnkirk
The HB and Paul hold that the deserving will be resurrected at the end of days, the undeserving will simply stay dead.The contemporary belief is that we either go to heaven or hell immediately after death. Your personal beliefs aside, how did Xtianity get from the former to the latter?
Ok lets assume this is correct.
You will also notice that the HB and other jewish apocalyptic literature see the coming of the messiah, the resurrection of the dead and the end of the age coming in the same period.
You will also notice that Paul seems to be of the opinion that the end and the resurrection is almost upon them.
Can you agree with this? If we can I will try to explain how IMHO Xtianity got from the former to the latter.
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Old 03-29-2004, 05:45 AM   #12
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Capn

You forget, judge is a preterist.

They are those people who read the olivet promise (paraphrased: "some standing here will not taste death till they see the son of god coming in his kingdom") as being written prior to 70 CE and being fulfilled with temple's destruction. Needless to say, there are many problems with this position and it is worthy of its own thread.

As to your topic, a few churches I know don't hold with an immediate heavenly entrance. They accept an end of history judgment, and hold that time simply stands still for the dead, so they don't know they've been dead for 1,500 years until the apocalypse. Talk about your special pleading!
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Old 03-29-2004, 08:09 AM   #13
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Originally Posted by judge
Ok lets assume this is correct.
You will also notice that the HB and other jewish apocalyptic literature see the coming of the messiah, the resurrection of the dead and the end of the age coming in the same period.
You will also notice that Paul seems to be of the opinion that the end and the resurrection is almost upon them.
Can you agree with this? If we can I will try to explain how IMHO Xtianity got from the former to the latter.
Yes, I agree with all of these stipulations, though I might word the following: "the resurrection of the dead and the end of the age coming in the same period" a little differently. To Wit: "that the resurrection of the dead will occur at the eschaton that divides the current age from the utopian apocalyptic age and is in fact its harbinger". I don't think that this produces any conflict with what you stipulated, but only adds more specificity to the sequence of events.

It seems to me that this is just exactly the concept that was in place when the NT was completed (and by that I mean written, as contrasted with compiled and canonized). That would place the transition to "immediate" resurrection to some period afterwards. I am seeking confirmation or refutation, with the supporting evidence. I have no bias or malice in favor of either conclusion; I simply want to understand how it got from A to B.
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Old 03-29-2004, 08:28 AM   #14
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Originally Posted by gregor
Capn

You forget, judge is a preterist.

They are those people who read the olivet promise (paraphrased: "some standing here will not taste death till they see the son of god coming in his kingdom") as being written prior to 70 CE and being fulfilled with temple's destruction. Needless to say, there are many problems with this position and it is worthy of its own thread.
Thank you for theheads-up, but I think I had better let judge make that point on his own.

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As to your topic, a few churches I know don't hold with an immediate heavenly entrance. They accept an end of history judgment, and hold that time simply stands still for the dead, so they don't know they've been dead for 1,500 years until the apocalypse. Talk about your special pleading!
I agree...this would naturally follow from the NT (and for the HB as well) euphemism for death as being "those who sleep", and would seem to be a necessary feature of such an arrangement if they wanted the concept to be accepted by very many people. Ironically, that state is startlingly close to what we as atheists expect death to be, only it's permanent (i.e. consciousness ceases).

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Old 03-29-2004, 12:52 PM   #15
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When Paul speaks of the resurrection, he is clearly envisioning a future event. It is not something that happens to a person when he or she dies. It is a specific point in the future that applies generally, to all who are dead and who are still living. However, Paul also believed that immediately upon the death of a Christian, that person went to be with Jesus. This is made most clear when he considers his own position as he if facing death.

Phi 1:21-24:

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For to me, to live is Christ and to die is gain. But if I am to live on in the flesh, this will mean fruitful labor for me; and I do not know which to choose. But I am hard-pressed from both directions, having the desire to depart and be with Christ, for that is very much better; yet to remain on in the flesh is more necessary for your sake.
E.P. Sanders explains the two different doctrines, and their sequence, concisely:

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Conceptually, this is different from the expectation of the transformation or resurrection of all believers at the coming of the Lord.... It envisages the ascent of each person's soul at death, rather than the transformation of the entire group of believers, whether living or dead, at Christ's return. Without posing these two conceptions as alternatives, Paul simply accepted them both. If he died, he would immediately be with Christ; at the end the Lord would return and bring his own, in a transformed state, to be with him.
Paul, at 31-32.

And this was not a Christian innovation. "The idea of a soul separable from the body, with different theories as to what might happen to it thereafter, was widespread in the varied Judaisms of the turn of the eras." Wright, The Resurrection of the Son of God, at 142. For example, the Testament of Abraham focuses on the immortal spirit:

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The spirits of those who died in righteousness shall live and rejoice; their spirits shall not perish, nor their memorial from before the face of the Great One.
Other Christian literature also shows how early this view was:

1 Clement, perhaps the earliest of the noncanonical Christian writings:

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Peter, through unrighteous envy, undured not one or two, but numerous labours. And when he had at length suffered martyrdom, he departed to the place of glory due to him.

And,


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Paul also obtained the reward of patient endurance...and suffering martyrdrom under the prefects. In that manner, he was removed from the world and went into the holy place.
Clement of Rome, 1.6.

Polycarp, when writing of Christiain martyrs in the early second century, wrote thus:

Quote:
They are in their due place in the presence of the Lord, which whom they also suffered.
Polycarp, 1.35.

So too Justin Martyr:

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The souls of the godly remain in a better place, while those of the unjust and wicked are in a worse place, waiting for the time of judgment.
Justin Martyr, 1.239.

And Iranaeus:

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The Lord has taught with very great fullness that souls continue to exist. They do not do this by passing from bodhy to body. Rather, they preserve the same form as that of the body to which they are adapted... The Lord states that the rich man recognized Lazarus after death, as well as Abraham.... Formt hese things, then, it is plainly declared that souls continue to exist, that they do not pass from body to body, that they possess the form of a man (so that they may be recognized), and that they retian the memory of things in this world.
1.411.
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Old 03-29-2004, 01:41 PM   #16
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So, Layman, the bottom line is that it requires the same level of tortured convoluted pretzel logic that reconciliation of the trinity required. It is simply the force-fitting of multiple incompatible concepts from different cultures into a doctrine that has enough superficial philosophical attractiveness to gain acceptance by those not particularly logically inclined.

Thank you Layman. You guys can continue to post to this thread, but I have heard enough, so this will be my last post to it.

Ahead warp factor 5, Mr.Sulu,

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Old 03-29-2004, 02:05 PM   #17
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Quote:
Originally Posted by capnkirk

It seems to me that this is just exactly the concept that was in place when the NT was completed (and by that I mean written, as contrasted with compiled and canonized). That would place the transition to "immediate" resurrection to some period afterwards. I am seeking confirmation or refutation, with the supporting evidence. I have no bias or malice in favor of either conclusion; I simply want to understand how it got from A to B.
Thanks to Layman for the quotes he provided.

Ok Cap'n I think I may be able to help with some further stuff but if I might can I first get your thoughts on these questions.

1.Where do you think adam would have lived had he eaten from the tree of life and gained etrnal life, Heaven or earth?

2. Where would those resurected in Daniel 12 have lived , heaven or earth?

3. And lastly Jesus told the saducees that "in the resurrection they are like the angels in heaven". Where would these resurrected folk have dwelt, heaven or earth?

Thanks
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Old 03-29-2004, 02:06 PM   #18
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Quote:
Originally Posted by capnkirk
So, Layman, the bottom line is that it requires the same level of tortured convoluted pretzel logic that reconciliation of the trinity required. It is simply the force-fitting of multiple incompatible concepts from different cultures into a doctrine that has enough superficial philosophical attractiveness to gain acceptance by those not particularly logically inclined.

Thank you Layman. You guys can continue to post to this thread, but I have heard enough, so this will be my last post to it.

Ahead warp factof 5, Ro Sulu,

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What are the incompatible concepts?
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Old 03-29-2004, 02:47 PM   #19
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Originally Posted by judge
Thanks to Layman for the quotes he provided.

Ok Cap'n I think I may be able to help with some further stuff but if I might can I first get your thoughts on these questions.

1.Where do you think adam would have lived had he eaten from the tree of life and gained etrnal life, Heaven or earth?

2. Where would those resurected in Daniel 12 have lived , heaven or earth?

3. And lastly Jesus told the saducees that "in the resurrection they are like the angels in heaven". Where would these resurrected folk have dwelt, heaven or earth?

Thanks
My response will serve to demonstrate just how far apart we are. I think it is a complete waste of time to speculate upon mythical characters as if they were historical people. I have no doubt of the mythical nature of Adam. Those that were "resurrected" in Daniel 12 have no more reality than Cinderella's fairy godmother. And lastly, any words found in the mouth of Jesus in any scripture were but there by plain ordinary people. Your example is no different than the account of Jesus' private prayer in the garden at Gethsemene, except that the latter is easier to recognize as necessarily composed by the author. The only creatures dwelling in Heaven are the imaginary ones created by people.

I only asked you to state your rationale, I'm sorry if you took that for an invitation to convince me that Heaven, Hell, and the afterlife are real. I sought only understanding, not consensus agreement or tacit validation.

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Old 03-29-2004, 03:19 PM   #20
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Originally Posted by capnkirk
My response will serve to demonstrate just how far apart we are. I think it is a complete waste of time to speculate upon mythical characters as if they were historical people. I have no doubt of the mythical nature of Adam. Those that were "resurrected" in Daniel 12 have no more reality than Cinderella's fairy godmother. And lastly, any words found in the mouth of Jesus in any scripture were but there by plain ordinary people. Your example is no different than the account of Jesus' private prayer in the garden at Gethsemene, except that the latter is easier to recognize as necessarily composed by the author. The only creatures dwelling in Heaven are the imaginary ones created by people.
That may be so, but if you wish to understand how such and such a view came about then perhaps you will have to view things from the perspective of those involved in bringing this about.

If you want to know why believers came to certain conclusions you may have to put yourself in their shoes.

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I only asked you to state your rationale, I'm sorry if you took that for an invitation to convince me that Heaven, Hell, and the afterlife are real. I sought only understanding, not consensus agreement or tacit validation.

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If you want to underatnd "my rationale" then you will have to be prepared to "put yourself in my shoes" rather than stating that one view is "obvious" or another view is "illogical."

I am not trying to convince you heaven and hell are real but rather help you to understand what how early believers views on these things influenced later "doctrine".
It is just that it may be a little more complicated than you miht think
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