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Old 02-07-2006, 03:52 PM   #31
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Quote:
Originally Posted by WILLOWTREE
The silence of Egyptian records supports the Exodus because Near East nations do not record defeats.
I provided two examples: Egyptian documentation of the Hyksos invasion, and Moabite documentation of subjugation by Israel. That's off the top of my head.
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Old 02-07-2006, 04:21 PM   #32
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Quote:
Originally Posted by WILLOWTREE
One example technically fulfilling a record of a defeat. I stress ONE.

Where is a pattern of defeats recorded ?

Two, three, four....like the Bible does about Israel. We know there are none. Thats why I ask the question.




The OP already states this. Did you read it ?

I asked where does any other Near East nation records defeats ?

They don't because God didn't control the content of their records.

Ray
God isn't powerful enough to control the historical records of a few ancient nations, yet he is powerful enough to create the universe from nothing. How is that possible?
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Old 02-07-2006, 04:27 PM   #33
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The demonic apes must have ate the records.:devil:
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Old 02-07-2006, 04:31 PM   #34
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Originally Posted by NZSkep
God isn't powerful enough to control the historical records of a few ancient nations, yet he is powerful enough to create the universe from nothing. How is that possible?
You have a made a mistake.

The Bible claims to be the word of God. Thats why it records Israel's defeats unlike all other Near East nations who do not record defeats. The reason they don't is because their records were written by men.

Ray
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Old 02-07-2006, 04:45 PM   #35
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I've already proven Ray wrong.
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Old 02-07-2006, 04:58 PM   #36
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Quote:
Originally Posted by WILLOWTREE
You have a made a mistake.

The Bible claims to be the word of God.

Ray

The Qur'an also claims to be the Word of G-d. However, its accounts actually are in full accordance with modern archaeology.

Consider the Qur'anic verse.

We save thee in the body, that thou mayest be a sign to those who come after thee! but verily, many among mankind are heedless of Our Signs! (Surah Yunus: 92)

It appears that this verse as well as the recent discovery of " Iram " is well supported by the Qur'an.

For more information on how the Qur'anic account correlates and distinguishes itself from the biblical account check out

http://www.harunyahya.com/pernat16.php


The Islamic version of the Exodus might help piece together the "missing link" between the Biblical account and what is generally considered acceptable by modern archaeology.

-River
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Old 02-07-2006, 05:25 PM   #37
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One example technically fulfilling a record of a defeat. I stress ONE.
Please go back and read the answers to your posts. I believe there's been at least two (as mentioned above) and maybe three (Hittite references) rendering your initial argument from silence invalid. Also, calling archaeological findings that don't correlate with your faith atheist philosophy shows a fundamental flaw in your reasoning.
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Old 02-07-2006, 05:26 PM   #38
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The Islamic version of the Exodus might help piece together the "missing link" between the Biblical account and what is generally considered acceptable by modern archaeology.
Does it state there was never an Exodus, slaves in Egypt, or parting of the Red Sea? If not, I doubt it. though in all honesty if you could show me where in th Koran to read, I think I could do it in my spare time.
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Old 02-07-2006, 05:43 PM   #39
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Insult = inability to refute.

Why have you evaded each point ? = inability to refute.
No one insulted anyone. He told you your post was typed in a way that it was difficult to understand.

The point was addressed, not evaded.


Persecution complex? Selective reading mayhap?

Quote:
Or is your Admin position insulate yourself from anyone asking this logical question?
I believe this can best be answered with... "Insult = inability to refute."

Quote:
Atheist philosophy.
"Insult = inability to refute."

Archaelogical evidence that falsifies your claim isn't "philosophy". It would appear you haven't even been reading the thread.
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Old 02-07-2006, 05:43 PM   #40
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Quote:
Originally Posted by FatherMithras
Does it state there was never an Exodus, slaves in Egypt, or parting of the Red Sea? If not, I doubt it. though in all honesty if you could show me where in th Koran to read, I think I could do it in my spare time.
This page gives a really nice summary of the Pharoahs, Moses and the

Exodus from an Islamic perspective.

http://www.harunyahya.com/pernat16.php

However, I personally believe that the real Mt. Sinai is located

in Saudi Arabia...and this has contributed to the lack of evidence regarding

the exodus. The Bible states" Sinai of arabia" and the archaeologists Wyatt

and Humphrey have also led independent excavations into Saudi Arabia. An interesting lead

is Prophet Muhammad's statement to his Son in law , Ali. He said " I am to

you as Moses is to Aaron *, except that I am the last of the Prophets". If you

study the Prophet's life there are interesting parallels with Moses. For

example the Islamic calender is based on Muhammad's personal Exodus

to Yathrib. And if Muhammad (pbuh) is truly a Prophet like unto Moses...

perhaps Moses also stepped into Arabian terrain.


* the Islamic concept of Aaron is different than the Bible. And the Qur'anic

Haman is also different from the biblical perspective. In the Qur'an, the wife of the

Pharoah ( Asiya) risked her life to save Prophet Moses (pbuh) ..but was ultimately

crushed under boulders...

-River
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