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03-18-2006, 02:01 PM | #1 |
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The Gospels as novels some problems
This post is partly a response to Vorkosigan's claim that if discovered by archaeologists today in a world without Christianity Mark would be seen as an example of the Greek novel. However, I thought it worth a new thread.
I'm not considering here the historical accuracy of Mark and the other Gospels. Mark may well be based to a substantial extent on evidence (the Septuagint early Christian prophetic revelations etc) which most of us would probably not accept as good historical evidence. What I'm considering is the narrow question of whether Mark etc fits in the genre of the Ancient novel ie works such as Xenophon's 'Ephesian Tale' Chariton's 'Chaereas and Callirhoe' etc. One major difference is that the classical Greek novels either use a background of real historical figures from long ago - Chariton etc or are set in contemporary times but avoid any mention of named historical characters or specific dates eg Xenophon. However, in Mark historical figures - Pilate Herod John the Baptist, of known dates from relatively recent times are used. for which there does not seem a good parallel among the ancient novels. One possible exception is Petronius' Satyricon which is clearly set in the time of Nero, when it was written, and in which real named figures from Nero's time play (very minor) roles. However the Satyricon taken as a whole does not seem to have been basically a novel. Rather it is a work of Menippean satire with alternating prose and verse parts and not really a parallel to the Gospels. (The fact that among the fragments surviving of the Satyricon the largest is the excellent Trimalchio's Feast episode, in which the alternation of verse and prose somewhat breaks down, can lead to a mistaken perception of the Satyricon as closer in genre to the novel than in fact it originally was.) One could probably avoid the force of this argument by placing the composition of the Gospels well into the 2nd century long after the deaths of Pilate etc. However, this solution has IMO its own major problems. Andrew Criddle |
03-19-2006, 02:02 PM | #2 | |
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We might expect some secondary characters in a fiction to be historical (like a fictional sitcom character meeting a real and current NBA star in the setting of an onscreen episode); but if even the primary characters are historical then I think my default position would have to be that the author was at least attempting to write history. Ben. |
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03-19-2006, 02:57 PM | #3 |
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The Feast of Trimalchio was prose for a reason: he was drunk and thus could not even get the grammar right!
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03-20-2006, 09:54 AM | #4 |
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If I read Vork right, a couple of his justifications for classifying Mark as a novel are
I wonder if you are interested in commenting on how valid these considerations are. |
03-20-2006, 11:46 AM | #5 | |
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My problem with the scheintod motif is that I am unable to decide how early it occurs in the Ancient novel and hence what the direction of influence (if any) is. Xenophon is IMO probably 2nd century CE and hence probably later than Mark. Most scholars would date Chariton in the late 1st century BCE and hence prior to any possible Christian influence. However I have recently been reading a new book 'The Myths of Fiction' (or via: amazon.co.uk) by EP Cueva, which argues from themes found in Plutarch's 'Life of Theseus' and Chariton that Chariton is later than Plutarch. Bowersock previously argued in 'Fiction as History (or via: amazon.co.uk)' that the classic Greek Novel shows signs of Christian influence but not many have agreed with him. Andrew Criddle |
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03-20-2006, 01:44 PM | #6 | |
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