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Old 11-07-2010, 08:44 PM   #51
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Thanks for offering to start with Neil Godfrey but why? Why not start with a well recognized Biblical Historian of the kind that teaching in major universities and publishes in peer reviewed journals.
Jesus Christ you are hung up on authorities in this field. You do realize that history is not science and that Biblical history is often considered quackery by serious historians, right?
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Old 11-08-2010, 04:47 AM   #52
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A humiliating death as the basis for some sort of meaningful outcome, some relevant significance- a human sacrifice - hardly a very Jewish take on things. -maryhelena
Abraham and Isaac? That was a cultural precedent of great significance.
But the hand of Abraham was stayed - no human sacrifice here.
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An afterlife in which there was reward to the righteous unjustly killed was a pedigreed cultural resolution to the problem of evil. We can trace the evolution of the idea in the Jewish texts: Isaiah 26:19, Ezekiel 37:11-14, Psalms 16:9-11, 49:15, Daniel 12:2 and Hosea 6:1-2.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Problem_of_evil
cf/Theodicy

The issue is not Jewish ideas re resurrection - it is that through one human sacrifice, that of the assumed historical gospel Jesus that 'salvation' comes to all men from this event.
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The Greatest Product Ever Sold was a hard sell? In what way? It seems to me a product of the Hellenization of a great monotheistic tradition, a long time coming and inevitable.
The gospel storyline, when considered as a historical event re the crucifixion of Jesus and his resurrection, is taking the ancient dying and rising god mythology to new heights. It is adding the assumption that this one man paid the price, for sin, for all men - and through this one human sacrifice all men are now able to be saved. Hard to sell such an idea? Well, certainly on home ground, so to speak, there has been little Jewish interest in buying...

That is of course how things are theologically viewed today by christians - as to whether or not that was the original understanding is open to question. Especially when, from a mythicist perspective, there was no historical gospel Jesus being nailed to that cross in 30/33 ce....


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I so often think that working from the NT in order to establish the history involved with the storyline is a bit like putting the cart before the horse. First try for the history and see what could have been found relevant within that history for the NT storyline. –maryhelena
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I agree. It's a pity that many here don't seem to think that way. Some even work backwards from later than the NT.

How does Paul fit with your theory that Hasmoneans were behind the Christ myth? What Hasmonean problem was Paul trying to fix?
Not fixing - developing. Transferring, developing ideas that were related to a Hasmonean historical figure to a newly constructed spiritual figure. A shift of focus from the historical to the spiritual - to an intellectual perspective; an interpretation of the historical that allowed endless scope for re-invention as opposed to the constraining realities of historicity. (don't want to get off topic here...)
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Old 11-08-2010, 06:41 AM   #53
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Dog-on:

One actual historical fact about Jesus is that he was crucified by the Romans.

Steve
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If he existed, then that is a fact. If he existed, then it is also a fact that some of his followers had something to do with founding the religion we call Christianity.
.
No follower of Jesus, nor even 'Paul of Tarsus', never wrote anything about the 'catholic-christianity' (the specification is a must, since the term 'Christianity' it is completely generic).

All the Gospels, including the Apocrypha and/or Gnostic works, are nothing more than pseudo-epigraphic works , fraudulently attributed to various disciples of Jesus, in order to give them an authority that would not otherwise have had.

The only text to have been written with certainty by a direct disciple of Jesus, today is no longer available to the erudition's world, inasmuch it is considered 'lost' by the forger clergy (but, almost certainly, some copies are kept in the exclusive archives of the Vatican). It consisted of the collection of sayings or 'oracles' of Jesus made by the TRUE Matthew, like we learn from Papias of Hierapolis. Surely the same Papias made use of that work (as well as by 'oral' sources) for the composition of its work in five volumes, titled 'Explanation of the Oracles of Jesus', declared 'lost' even it (because too incriminating!)

For this reason, the pseudo-gospel of Matthew, which today is one of the four 'canonical' Gospels, in the early centuries of the Christian era enjoyed great authority, by virtue of the forger device to attribute in pseudo-epigraphic way this text to the disciple Matthew, thanks to the ambiguity created by the collection of sayings made by the same true Matthew: a well-known thing in the second century of our era, when they began to flourish gospels of all species, including those canons.

It is certainly not a coincidence that when you wanted to give authority to a blatant patristic lie, one put it in the Gospel of Matthew, such as the absurd nativity present in this text and the famous phrase ".. you are Peter and on this rock I will build my church .. ": a phrase that Jesus never one dreamed to say !!...

The alleged 'apostolic tradition' (from which the fraudulent title of 'Catholic Apostolic Roman Church), still today the pride of the Catholic clergy, it was just one of the countless and hallucinating inventions of the forger fathers of about 19 centuries ago, inasmuch at the base of the birth of the catholic-christianity there was absolutely nothing of 'apostolic'!...

In reality, it has (or 'is'?) existed a community, or sect, whose members called themselves 'apostolics', in the sense that they strictly followed the true message transmitted to them by Jesus himself, or by his immediate disciples. It was surely a Gnostic sect. Concerning it, namely the one of 'Apostolics', one does mention in the Gospel of Philip. This sect resisted until the late fourth century, then was swept away by the fierce persecution of the bloody Roman Catholic clergy, along with all other Gnostic sects and 'heretical', as well as all the pagan cults in existence in the Imperial Rome of the fourth century AD.


Greetings


Littlejohn

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Old 11-08-2010, 07:01 AM   #54
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If he existed, then that is a fact. If he existed, then it is also a fact that some of his followers had something to do with founding the religion we call Christianity.
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No follower of Jesus, nor even 'Paul of Tarsus', never wrote anything about the 'catholic-christianity' (the specification is a must, since the term 'Christianity' it is completely generic).
I intended generic. I don't think Paul's Christianity was anything like what became catholic Christianity.

I also don't believe Jesus actually existed. I'm just noting that IF he did, then he was crucified and, over some period of time afterward, some of his followers started a religious movement of some kind that, over the next two or three centuries, evolved into the religion we now know as Christianity. But I don't think that is how Christianity really got started.
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Old 11-08-2010, 10:43 AM   #55
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Paul certainly believed that the crucified Jesus (1 Corinthians 2:8). If, you hold that Paul cannot mean human earthly rulers here because this would contradict Romans 13, then you are left with the strange idea that Paul regarded earthly human rulers as appointed by God but not their angelic heavenly counterparts.
Paul believed angels appointed by God crucified Jesus and they were the 'rulers of this age'?

Surely Paul that bad naughty angels, demons even, were the rulers of this age, not nice good angels appointed by God.


The naughty angels were not appointed by God to be the rulers of this age, surely?
My point was that your position requires Paul to hold a consistantly bleak negative view of the angelic rulers but a consistently benign positive view of their human counterparts.

There is a tension, (you might regard it as a contradiction), between Paul's positive and negative attitudes to rulers and authorities, but I don't find it plausible that Paul crudely believed: heavenly rulers bad ! earthly rulers good ! In most cosmologies of that period there is more consistency between peoples' attitudes to earthly things and their attitudes to heavenly things.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 11-10-2010, 02:35 AM   #56
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One only has to examine the way historians (ancient, medieval and classical) handle sources and compare with NT scholars to see the difference for themselves. No-one needs Neil Godfrey to post on it. But I have done my bit to point out the differences between the two in this post.
One problem is that this post is largely a comparison of the methods of NT scholars and the methods of historians of the modern and (later) medieval period.

Ancient History, (in general), cannot be done by the methods applicable for (relatively) modern history. (1066 is modern in this context.)

What might be more interesting is a comparison between NT scholars and Ancient Historians studying such issues as the Historical Socrates, pre-Socratic philosophy, the Catiline conspiracy, the Druids, the life of Alexander the Great etc.

Andrew Criddle
There is no difference in methodology, only in availability of resources, and thereby the types of topics investigated. Most ancient history looks at broad sweeps because the nature of the concrete evidence allows for little more than broad sweeps (e.g. rise of Athenian democracy, some era within the Roman empire).

The few exceptions (e.g. histories of Julius Caesar, Hadrian, etc) are likewise often broad in scope, and are rarely if ever capable of delving in to the sorts of detail a modern historian would relish in researching, say, Lincoln or Bismarck and co.
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Old 11-11-2010, 12:04 PM   #57
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One problem is that this post is largely a comparison of the methods of NT scholars and the methods of historians of the modern and (later) medieval period.

Ancient History, (in general), cannot be done by the methods applicable for (relatively) modern history. (1066 is modern in this context.)

What might be more interesting is a comparison between NT scholars and Ancient Historians studying such issues as the Historical Socrates, pre-Socratic philosophy, the Catiline conspiracy, the Druids, the life of Alexander the Great etc.

Andrew Criddle
There is no difference in methodology, only in availability of resources, and thereby the types of topics investigated. Most ancient history looks at broad sweeps because the nature of the concrete evidence allows for little more than broad sweeps (e.g. rise of Athenian democracy, some era within the Roman empire).

The few exceptions (e.g. histories of Julius Caesar, Hadrian, etc) are likewise often broad in scope, and are rarely if ever capable of delving in to the sorts of detail a modern historian would relish in researching, say, Lincoln or Bismarck and co.
Have you read Ancient History - Evidence and Models (or via: amazon.co.uk) by Finley ? Particularly chapter 2 The Ancient Historian and His Sources

Finley would have largely agreed with you as to best practice in both Ancient and Modern History. However he admits the extent to which Ancient Historians frequently treat as a primary source material which would not be accepted as a primary source by historians of the Modern World. To some extent this is bad practice by Ancient Historians, but sometimes there is no alternative. Using strict criteria of what counts as a primary source would make it impossible to write about a good deal of the Ancient World.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 11-11-2010, 06:30 PM   #58
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MH,

FWIW, that coin has σεβαστῷ (SEBASTWi, the I on the coin is the iota subscript associated with the omega, which is sometimes spelled out rather than assumed), which is the dative singular of σεβαστός (SEBASTOS). You will note that Livia stands besides her husband, draped. The appelation is clearly to Augustus only.

For the plural, to include Livia, wouldn't you need σεβαστοι (which, I believe, is how Livia and Augustus are together referred to on inscriptions after the death of Augustus)?

DCH

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The reference in the Wikipedia article is to a coin of Augustus on which Livia appears. Coin RPC 2466 at:

http://www.wildwinds.com/coins/ric/augustus/t.html
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Old 11-11-2010, 09:18 PM   #59
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There is no difference in methodology, only in availability of resources, and thereby the types of topics investigated. Most ancient history looks at broad sweeps because the nature of the concrete evidence allows for little more than broad sweeps (e.g. rise of Athenian democracy, some era within the Roman empire).

The few exceptions (e.g. histories of Julius Caesar, Hadrian, etc) are likewise often broad in scope, and are rarely if ever capable of delving in to the sorts of detail a modern historian would relish in researching, say, Lincoln or Bismarck and co.
Have you read Ancient History - Evidence and Models (or via: amazon.co.uk) by Finley ? Particularly chapter 2 The Ancient Historian and His Sources

Finley would have largely agreed with you as to best practice in both Ancient and Modern History. However he admits the extent to which Ancient Historians frequently treat as a primary source material which would not be accepted as a primary source by historians of the Modern World. To some extent this is bad practice by Ancient Historians, but sometimes there is no alternative. Using strict criteria of what counts as a primary source would make it impossible to write about a good deal of the Ancient World.

Andrew Criddle
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Originally Posted by neilgodfrey View Post

There is no difference in methodology, only in availability of resources, and thereby the types of topics investigated. Most ancient history looks at broad sweeps because the nature of the concrete evidence allows for little more than broad sweeps (e.g. rise of Athenian democracy, some era within the Roman empire).

The few exceptions (e.g. histories of Julius Caesar, Hadrian, etc) are likewise often broad in scope, and are rarely if ever capable of delving in to the sorts of detail a modern historian would relish in researching, say, Lincoln or Bismarck and co.
Have you read Ancient History - Evidence and Models (or via: amazon.co.uk) by Finley ? Particularly chapter 2 The Ancient Historian and His Sources

Finley would have largely agreed with you as to best practice in both Ancient and Modern History. However he admits the extent to which Ancient Historians frequently treat as a primary source material which would not be accepted as a primary source by historians of the Modern World. To some extent this is bad practice by Ancient Historians, but sometimes there is no alternative. Using strict criteria of what counts as a primary source would make it impossible to write about a good deal of the Ancient World.

Andrew Criddle
The "Lives the Twelve Caesars" by Suetonius show without any reasonable doubt that writers who were non-Jesus believers were not much different from writers of today.

It WAS the authors of the NT, including "Paul", who were fairy tale fiction writers posing as historians.



Examine the "Life of Tiberius" by Suetonius.


Quote:
.....5 Some have supposed that Tiberius was born at Fundi, on no better evidence than that his maternal grandmother was a native of that place, and that later a statue of Good Fortune was set up there by decree of the senate.

But according to the most numerous and trustworthy authorities, he was born at Rome, on the Palatine, the sixteenth day before the Kalends of December, in the consulship of Marcus Aemilius Lepidus and Lucius Munatius Plancus (the former for the second time) while the war of Philippi was going on.

In fact it is so recorded both in the calendar and in the public gazette.

Yet in spite of this some write that he was born in the preceding year, that of Hirtius and Pansa, and others in the following year, in the consulate of Servilius Isauricus and Lucius Antonius....
There is no DOUBT whatsoever that non-Christian writers did use sources which today's writers would have used. Today's historians would surely use PUBLIC records.

It was JESUS believers who INVENTED their sources which NO credible historian would have done today.

Examine gMatthew's version on the birth of Jesus who supposedly lived during the time of TIBERIUS.


Matthew 1.18-22
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18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.

19 Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily.

20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.

21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins. 22 Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet...
What PUBLIC GAZZETTE did the author of gMatthew use for the Holy Ghost birth story?

The "Twelve Lives of the Caesars" is proof that Ancient historians, not the NT fiction writers, were not very different from today's historians.
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Old 11-11-2010, 10:56 PM   #60
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DCH

I had another look at the Wikipedia page - and clicked on the discussion tab - and lo and behold there is Doktorspin......and Roger Pearse..

Here is a bit of the discussion.

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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Talk:Lysanias

Critique of the archaeology theory

Let's consider the archaeological evidence for this Lysanias. It is a fragment whose interpretation, it is claimed, talks of Tiberius and his mother Livia as "August lords", Κυριωι Σεβαστωι. The specific phrase in fact only apparently occurs in this fragment, so the evidence breaks down to the term Σεβαστωι. However, coins minted in Smyrna in 10 BCE show images of Augustus and Livia with the caption Σεβαστωι Σμυρναιωι[1], the "Smyrnean Augusti", ie Augustus and Livia were referred to as Σεβαστωι in 10 BCE, so the fragment could easily refer to a period circa 10 BCE. We also know that during the life of Augustus, a reference to him and his wife as the Θεωι Σεβαστωι, "August gods", was included in the mysteries of Demeter at Ephesus[2]. This means there is no reason to believe that the term Σεβαστωι should be restricted to the time of Tiberius or later, so Nymphaeus, the freedman of Aetus, if the inscription dated to circa 10 BCE, could easily have known of a street that the historically known Lysanias established less than thirty years earlier.

That being the case, the temple inscription is of no use for dating the Lysanias it mentions to a time other than that of the Lysanias known from history. Josephus mentioning the kingdom of Lysanias regarding properties gifted by Caligula and Claudius is nothing strange, given the probable long lasting memory of this friend of the Jews. Such long lasting associations between people and places was not uncommon: one need only think of Caesarea Philippi, named after the tetrarch Philip II who died in 34 CE, yet preserved in the New Testament.

The only issue left to be dealt with is the reference in Luke to a Lysanias, tetrarch of Abilene, at a time when Philip II was tetrarch of the region of Iturea and Trachonitis according to the gospel of Luke. It is interesting that Iturea once contained Abilene, though it may have been separated out in one of the various land redistributions.

The issue cannot be resolved due to insufficient evidence to support this second Lysanias, though on face value it would seem difficult for the gospel account to reflect history. It is unlikely that an otherwise unheard of Lysanias of the same name as a well known ruler appeared 60 years later.

[edit]Returning Lysanias to history


The editor who has removed evidence from this entry seems more interested in apologetics than in getting at the history of the matter. The attempt to put the figure mentioned in Luke on the same level as the verified Lysanias shows no historical methodology. Repetition of errors does not make the error any more correct. The conjectures on the fragment from Abila mentioning Lysanias has been shown to be baseless from the coin evidence cited in the article. Removing it only seems to show a desire to hid facts. If you cannot check the evidence leave it alone. F.F. Bruce is a Christian text scholar and apologist who shows no interest in history. He has no place in an article with pretensions of history. --Doktorspin (talk) 12:26, 8 November 2008 (UTC)

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Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
MH,

FWIW, that coin has σεβαστῷ (SEBASTWi, the I on the coin is the iota subscript associated with the omega, which is sometimes spelled out rather than assumed), which is the dative singular of σεβαστός (SEBASTOS). You will note that Livia stands besides her husband, draped. The appelation is clearly to Augustus only.

For the plural, to include Livia, wouldn't you need σεβαστοι (which, I believe, is how Livia and Augustus are together referred to on inscriptions after the death of Augustus)?

DCH

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Originally Posted by maryhelena View Post
The reference in the Wikipedia article is to a coin of Augustus on which Livia appears. Coin RPC 2466 at:

http://www.wildwinds.com/coins/ric/augustus/t.html
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