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12-18-2005, 10:42 PM | #1 | |
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2 John 1:7 translation assistance
Just a few questions.
What language is this passage written in? Per the KJV it reads: Quote:
ETA: Maybe it might be better to ask what the phrase "come in the flesh" means also. Regards SI |
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12-19-2005, 12:00 AM | #2 |
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εÏ?χομενον εν σαÏ?κι
What else could it mean besides its literal interpretation of coming into the flesh? Not Flesh -> Come into flesh -> flesh. |
12-19-2005, 07:52 AM | #3 |
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I agree here, Chris. This is especially pertinent if the author of the Johannine letters had an eye on some form of early docetism (e.g., Cerinthianism).
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12-19-2005, 08:05 AM | #4 | |
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One of the important aspects is that this is a now and current and continuing relationship, not just the coming of the man Jesus Christ walking Jerusalem and Galilee, also His manifesting through the body of believers in our real time :-) Shalom, Steven Avery Queens, NY http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Messianic_Apologetic |
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12-19-2005, 09:54 AM | #5 | |
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εÏ?χομενον is a present tense middle/passive participle which would then translate to 'coming.' The use of εν is interesting since it mirrors a similar anti-separationist change in GMark (if memory serves, I have no books here) where the spirit of god at the baptism was originally said to be descending into (εις) Jesus as opposed in (εν) which it was changed to later to counter the 'heretics.' If it had been εις instead of εν in this example here, a case could have been made for a separationist idea. The gnostics, docetists and other 'heretics' were quite adept at interpreting the proto-orthodox scripture in a manner that supported their particular religious views. The proto-orthodox became quite careful with their wording as time went by. Anyways, 'coming in [the] flesh' is the most appropriate translation and would point to a flesh and blood Jesus, although I could think of ways that even that could be 'corrupted' by a gnostic view. Julian |
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12-19-2005, 10:18 PM | #6 | |
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What does this concept encompass? I was born on 12/29/1977. Was this the date that I "came into the flesh"? |
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12-19-2005, 10:22 PM | #7 | |
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12-19-2005, 10:52 PM | #8 | |
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12-20-2005, 07:01 AM | #9 | |
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However, it should be noted that gnostics could easily read such a sentence differently using the techniques used by apologists today. For example, I read somewhere that Sophia (wisdom) also came in the flesh, in the sense that all men possess some of it and it is therefore present in the flesh, although Sophia herself is not actually a human being. Yeah, I know... Theology. Also, I made a small error here in a previous post. The εις Mark attestation is good being B D and F13 according to Swanson, whereas the other variant is not εν as I indicated earlier but επι (επ') which was still done to avoid the unfortunate 'into.' Julian |
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12-20-2005, 07:58 AM | #10 | |
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