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Old 04-06-2008, 12:44 AM   #711
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The silence of the Talmud (re-compiled c.200 CE, and added to after) supports the postulate of a late NT fiction, as does the paucity of prenicene archaeological citations.
Neither actually "supports" it in the sense of suggesting it to be the more likely explanation. They are simply consistent with the notion.

The first is also consistent with the notion that the Talmud authors didn't consider Christianity worth addressing and we've already seen (though some apparently prefer to continue to believe otherwise) that there doesn't appear to be any legitimate basis for an expectation of "archaeological citations" prior to Constantine.
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Old 04-06-2008, 12:49 AM   #712
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One does not need to look to far to find the sect of the followers of the Iranian prophet Mani...
Did they leave any "hard archaeological evidence" behind?
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Old 04-06-2008, 04:12 PM   #713
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mm:

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The purpose of the question was to open for examination the interpretation of all ancient historical events before Nicaea, in which we can find evidence that there was a (historical) reaction (or specific commentary) to the new purported "Early Christian movement" -- at a larger scale than a single convert, perhaps an entire town or city, who may have reacted as a whole, which is a natural expectation of the diversity of politics. I dont think the Jewish people can offer any historical evidence in this regard
This is not how converstion typically happens, unless it is because a ruler has been converted and his subjects follow along, or an invading army creates the converts.
Well we happen to know that in the case of "christianity" the ruler of the epoch, Constantine managed to convince himself that he'd had a religious experience. Once he had that expience the empire was not the same any more, and he actively legislated for, supported and protected the "christian church". Arnaldo Momigliano describes this series of events, in his sober Jewish voice, as A MIRACLE.

I am inclined to agree with him. All it took was Constantine. The question is whether there was anything of christianity extant before his assuming the role of Pontifex Maximus 312 CE, and his subsequent rise to supremacy.

COnstantine's propaganda asserts a "christian history". But is this simply a pseudo-history wrought by imperial forgery? The Historia Augusta was probably written under Constantine. The epoch of Constantine is a black hole of ancient history, because all the lights of pagan historians have been extinguished, and we are looking at things via the mono-beam illumination of the imperial-cult of christian "biblical historians".

His armies invaded the eastern empire and were victorious. He asserts Christianity at Nicaea, and an Arian controversy rages in a political sense for a century or more before it is contained by the "orthodoxy". He sought unification under the sword and achieved it by the sword. When Eusebius describes "the wall of swords" at Nicaea he was not joking. He was on the victorious side. Those who wrote the history we read. Think about it Toto.


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Old 04-06-2008, 04:26 PM   #714
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This is not how converstion typically happens, unless it is because a ruler has been converted and his subjects follow along, or an invading army creates the converts.
Well we happen to know that in the case of "christianity" the ruler of the epoch, Constantine managed to convince himself that he'd had a religious experience. Once he had that expience the empire was not the same any more, and he actively legislated for, supported and protected the "christian church". Arnaldo Momigliano describes this series of events, in his sober Jewish voice, as A MIRACLE.
You've misread Momigliano.

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Old 04-06-2008, 04:29 PM   #715
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A little meditation upon this quite natural thought confronts us with the fact that it was not Eusebius who was doing the political masquerrading, since Eusebius was sponsored by The Boss, and it was Constantine who was doing the mocking. He was a robber and a brigand. And he got away with it because of his large successful and political army.

Christianity is an imperial invention, and also the invention of a Pontifex Maximus. The role of Pontifex Maximus was ancient and had rights and honours attached.

We know Christianity hit the streets hard and running with effect from c.312 CE. We know that Eusebius most likely penned his Historia Ecclesiastica and other works (including the Dear Poor Christian Martyrs) during the period from 312 to 324 CE, with various revisions until 337 CE, etc.

We know that there was an extremely large explosion of reaction of public opinion for and against "christianity" and with a corresponding statistical explosion of the archaeological evidence, with effect from the "Council" of Nicaea in 325 CE. But what we do not know for sure is the length of the fuse.
The Council of Nicaea in 325 CE is an indication to me that Christianity or followers of Jesus predated Constantine. As far as I understand, the Council was called to meet to resolve theological or doctrinal issues with respect to Jesus and I have not been able so far to find any writer that have claimed the Council of Nicaea did not happen.

We may be reasonably confident that the council of Nicaea happened in an historical sense. Our reports of the nature of this "Council" however are preserved by the descendants of the Constantininan christian victors.

I consider the "Council" of Nicaea to be a political and military supremacy summit meeting. COnstantine summoned each of the attendees to the meeting by letter. They walked through a wall of drawn swords.

Why was the Council called according to the "ecclesiastical cult historians"? A number of them say on account of the words of Arius. What were these words of Arius, the Alexandrian pagan priest and logician?

There is no doubt that what was to become the intolerant and persecutory top-down-emperor-cult of the fourth and fifth and all subsequent centuries was there and then born, and came into existence, at this military supremacist council of Nicaea 325 CE.

COnstantine asserts there were christian "bishops" in attendance, but if you read his letter, he mentions there are "from the west" - ie: he had cultivated a few bishops in the period 312-324 CE in his imperial court. The rest of the eastern attendees were pagans - the large landholders, the heads of the civil and the religious groups, the influentials --- Constantine had used intilligence to gather this information on who was who in the eastern empire. And he summoned them all -- none of whom were "christian".

But those who signed on the dotted line against the words of Arius, and who supported Constantine's agenda, would become tax-exempt Bishops of the new and strange religion of the CHRESTIANS (the good religion) over-night, and they would be empowered by the Boss.

I dont think we will find any archaeological evidence of christianity before the Council of Nicaea, unless it is primitive developmental phase in Rome from 312 CE.


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Presently, I rely on Tacitus, Suetonius, Pliny the Younger, Justin Martyr, Theophilus of Antioch, Athenagoras and Origen, to consider that Christians, not necessarily followers of Jesus, were around as early as the 1st or 2nd century.

Have a look at the Origenist controversy of the fourth and fifth centuries. If you are going to rely upon this author Origen, have a look at the turbulence surrounding the trajectory of his written works across the boundary event in ancient history called Nicaea.

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Old 04-06-2008, 04:33 PM   #716
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... and we've already seen (though some apparently prefer to continue to believe otherwise) that there doesn't appear to be any legitimate basis for an expectation of "archaeological citations" prior to Constantine.
I haven't seen any kind of decent case made that such an expectation is unreasonable, so it's no wonder that some prefer to believe otherwise.
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Old 04-06-2008, 04:39 PM   #717
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What were these words of Arius, the Alexandrian pagan priest and logician?
The what???

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COnstantine asserts there were christian "bishops" in attendance, but if you read his letter, he mentions there are "from the west" - ie: he had cultivated a few bishops in the period 312-324 CE in his imperial court. The rest of the eastern attendees were pagans - the large landholders, the heads of the civil and the religious groups, the influentials --- Constantine had used intilligence to gather this information on who was who in the eastern empire. And he summoned them all -- none of whom were "christian".
May we have the text of this letter, please? I really want to see what portion of it stands as "evidence", and justifies your claim, that all of the eastern attendees of the Council of Nicea were pagans.

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Old 04-06-2008, 04:40 PM   #718
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... and we've already seen (though some apparently prefer to continue to believe otherwise) that there doesn't appear to be any legitimate basis for an expectation of "archaeological citations" prior to Constantine.
I haven't seen any kind of decent case made that such an expectation is unreasonable, so it's no wonder that some prefer to believe otherwise.
Define "decent", please.

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Old 04-06-2008, 04:45 PM   #719
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The silence of the Talmud (re-compiled c.200 CE, and added to after) supports the postulate of a late NT fiction, as does the paucity of prenicene archaeological citations.
Neither actually "supports" it in the sense of suggesting it to be the more likely explanation. They are simply consistent with the notion.

The first is also consistent with the notion that the Talmud authors didn't consider Christianity worth addressing and we've already seen (though some apparently prefer to continue to believe otherwise) that there doesn't appear to be any legitimate basis for an expectation of "archaeological citations" prior to Constantine.
In a brief ABSTRACT I have outlined what I consider to be a statement of the position of Ahistoricity.

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The Argument to Ahistoricity (2007)

Did Christianity (Jesus and the Gospels) exist in the Pre-Nicene Epoch?
There are two ways to "prove" [2] ahistoricity: [1]

(1) The Argument from Silence (of 2 parts)
(1A) The SILENCE of Insufficient Evidence
(1B) The Integrity of the Literature Tradition

and (2) Argument to the Best Explanation: Constantinian Invention

[1] Adopted from Carrier.
[2] Here "prove" implies to demonstrate a consistency with the evidence
Consequently the argument is both (1) and (2) above.


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Old 04-06-2008, 04:54 PM   #720
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Define "decent", please.

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The first definition here.

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Originally Posted by http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/decent
Main Entry:
de·cent Listen to the pronunciation of decent
Pronunciation:
\ˈdē-sənt\
Function:
adjective
Etymology:
Middle French or Latin; Middle French, from Latin decent-, decens, present participle of decēre to be fitting; akin to Latin decus honor, dignus worthy, Greek dokein to seem, seem good
Date:
1539

1archaic a: appropriate b: well-formed : handsome2 a: conforming to standards of propriety, good taste, or morality <decent behavior> b: modestly clothed3: free from immodesty or obscenity <decent language>4: fairly good : adequate, satisfactory <decent wages>5: marked by moral integrity, kindness, and goodwill <hard-working and decent folks> <it's very decent of them to help>
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