Doug Shaver

Not unless you presuppose the inerrancy not only of the canonical Christian writings but also of traditional orthodox Christianity's interpretation of those writings.

To anyone reading the New Testament without both of those presuppositions, it is not the least bit obvious that so far as Luke was concerned, Jesus = God.

Amaleq13

No, as you've already been told, they are quite clearly differentiated in the story. This is just more wishful thinking that lacks support from the text it claims to interpret.

rhutchin

Not really. Luke does distinguish between the Law of Moses and the Law of the Lord. Luke does point to that which is written in the Law of the Lord.

show_no_mercy

How can there be a "law of the Lord" (the law of Jesus) before Jesus even knows how to talk?

Amaleq13

No, you missed my point. Luke clearly differentiates between Jesus and God though he refers to both as "lord". They are depicted as separate entities in the story.

No, he doesn't. They are clearly references to the same collection of laws in Hebrew Scripture.

rhutchin

There is a distinction made between God in heaven and God on earth and what it entailed for God to take the form of a man and live among that which He had created. However, the risen Christ is said to sit at the right hand of God and to rule with God and to be called Lord even as God is called Lord. Both God and Christ are described as being the savior of men. After his resurrection, God, Lord, Christ become names for the one God.

The Law of Moses is a specific reference to that law given to Moses by God in the wilderness. The Law of the Lord would contain the Law of Moses. To the Christian, the Law of the Lord would be, at the very least, the Law of Moses as explained by Christ through such means as His Sermon on the Mount. The Christian recognizes the Law of Moses to be a limited body of laws that are better explained by Christ than in the Mishrash and Talmudic writings.

Not being a Christian, I don't think you can understand the Christian mindset with its reliance on Christ as the Word of God.

rhutchin

[God] hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began,... 2 Timothy 1:9

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. John 1:1

Jesus existed prior to taking the form of a man by becoming the child conceived in Mary that then grew into a mature human being.

kcdad

Nonsense...

Either Jesus and God are one or separate... they can not be both. Separate is a very specific word and has a meaning that excludes being the same or being one. Jesus can not talk to himself and plead to himself for rescue... he can not sit at his own right hand and he can not call himself "our father " or Abba.

I think it is easy to understand the Christian mindset. What is difficult is why do you think that way?

kcdad

Christ, CHRISTOS, the concept, existed before Jesus. Jesus was born, came into existence, was created in Mary's womb. The anointing, the messiah... that concept existed long before the first century...

There is a difference between Jesus and Christ.

rhutchin

I agree. The concept of the Messiah was an OT concept. Nonetheless, that which was Jesus in human form was Jesus in godly form prior to that time. Jesus is God who existed before the universe was created, and this same Jesus took the form of a man and lived among us in the 1st century.