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Old 03-01-2013, 09:38 AM   #41
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Dear Jake,
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We become even more suspicious when we find out that Marcion's gospel predated the naming of the Gospel of Luke by more than a generation. Marcion had his gospel not after the mid 140's CE, and perhaps much earlier. A gospel named "Luke" is never mentioned before Irenaeus around 180 CE. And when it is finally mentioned, Irenaeus admits that Marcion had it first! AH 3.7.
I do not see the fuss here. Marcion named his gospel, orthodox Christians did not declare yet an author for gLuke.

I looked at AH 3.7 but did not see what you are talking about. The closest I found was that, AH I, XXII, 2:
"Marcion of Pontus succeeded him, and developed his doctrine. In so doing, he advanced the most daring blasphemy against Him who is proclaimed as God by the law and the prophets, declaring Him to be the author of evils, to take delight in war, to be infirm of purpose, and even to be contrary to Himself. But Jesus being derived from that father who is above the God that made the world, and coming into Judaea in the times of Pontius Pilate the governor, who was the procurator of Tiberius Caesar, was manifested in the form of a man to those who were in Judaea, abolishing the prophets and the law, and all the works of that God who made the world, whom also he calls Cosmocrator. Besides this, he mutilates the Gospel which is according to Luke, removing all that is written respecting the generation of the Lord, and setting aside a great deal of the teaching of the Lord, in which the Lord is recorded as most dearly confessing that the Maker of this universe is His Father. He likewise persuaded his disciples that he himself was more worthy of credit than are those apostles who have handed down the Gospel to us, furnishing them not with the Gospel, but merely a fragment of it. In like manner, too, he dismembered the Epistles of Paul, removing all that is said by the apostle respecting that God who made the world, to the effect that He is the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, and also those passages from the prophetical writings which the apostle quotes, in order to teach us that they announced beforehand the coming of the Lord"

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Luke is never mentioned in any surviving scrap attributed to Papias. Scholars wax on and on about the Tesimony of Papias concerning Mark and Matthew, but where was Luke?
We have few writings from Papias, who, BTW, was not fond of Christian writings (except his own!).
Papias' known writings do not say nothing about John. And for Matthew, it looks these "logias" are not a gospel.

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We also know that the author of Acts also redacted the "third gospel." Acts and canonical Luke constitute a set. So, if it is likely that Acts post-dates Marcion, and contains anti-Marciointe material, then the likelihood that the canonical version of Luke is also post-Marcion. Thanks to Richard I. Pervo, we know beyond a reasonable doubt that Acts dates to the second century because it utilizes Josephus. And thanks to Joseph B. Tyson, we know that Acts was written to counter the Marcionite challenge.
Acts utilizes Josephus but only Wars (see an earlier posting -- I'll come back to that).
I do not see how Acts was written to counter Marcion. It is certainly written to show how such a great apostle was Paul, which could be considered in favour of Marcion's views. And it is fully explanable without putting Marcion in the mix.

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So what did the proto-orthodox redactor add to urLuke to create canonical Luke? If it can be shown that majority of this material is anti-Marcionite, the case for the priority of Marcion's version is increased. And that is exactly what we find. The majority of the material in canonical Luke that was not in Marcion's gospel can be viewed as contra Marcionite. It is no coincidence that the majority of the unique material in canonical Luke (called the "Lukan Sondergut" by German scholars) did not appear in Marcon's gospel.

Let me repeat that in another more prosaic way to emphasis the point. Most of the stuff that is in Luke but not Marcion's gospel is not in Mark or Matthew either.
Sure, but the same can be explained by Marcion removing from gLuke things he did not like. We would get to the same result.

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Now, to believe that canonical Luke was prior to l'evangelion marcionite, we are asked to believe that someone added the Lukan Sondergut to the material known in the other synopotic gospels, and then just as quickly Marcion came along and chopped it out! That strains credulity. It is too much of a "coincidence." It is much easier to fathom that it was added after Marcion.
I do not follow you. What is this Sondergut? Provide the verses. Why make you think that Sondergut was not in the original gLuke?

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OK, one may ask, what material is in the unique Lukan material? I give here quick examples. The nativity in Luke is a late addition. It does not appear in Mark, or "Q" (if that doubtful document even existed) and it is contradictory with Matthew.
I do not think the nativity in gLuke is a late addition: Valentinus was wrestling with that (actually, according to Hypolytus of Rome, Basilides and Valentinus knew about the gospels).

The fact that these stories about the nativity are different in gLuke & gMatthew are easy to explain if the two gospels were written at about the same time with an author not knowing about the other.

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And it certainly contradicts Marcion's docetic Jesus wafting down from heaven. Also, the resurrection appearance where Jesus states "Look at my hands and my feet, that it is I myself. Touch me and see, because a ghost does not have flesh and bones as you can see I have." This is clearly a late addition to the gospel and just clearly as clearly an antidocetic text.
Marcion, Marcion, Marcion. That's an obsession. Of course, one can also say the reverse: Marcion contradicted what is in gLuke by deleting strategically and modifying.

And Luke's wording about ghost can be explained to counter people in his/her community who thought Jesus reappeared as a ghost (apparition as a ghost after death was widely believed then and therefore not exceptional).

Furthermore, Marcion did not show his docetic Jesus as a ghost when on earth but looking as physical as the next guy. Actually, Jesus reappearing to his disciples was in Marcion's gospel according to Tertullian and reconstructions I got from the internet.

Best regards, Bernard
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Old 03-01-2013, 10:26 AM   #42
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To Tenorikuma and Bingo the clown-O,

For a long time, I also thought "Luke" knew about Josephus' Wars and Antiquities. But little by little I had to step back from this position (knowing 'Antiquities") because I kept bumping into evidence to the contrary.

I already posted on this forum (yesterday) one example which shows that very neatly (about Ananias wrongly the high priest during Felix's rule in Judea).
I have others here
If you click on the link, you will see I addressed Carrier's argument about Judas of Galilee and Theudas (I even reproduced Carrier's whole argument!).
Essentially, I said that someone would need atomistic tunnel vision to see only two names in the passage and nothing else. And more ...

Certainly, "Luke" put stuff in the gospel and Acts which shows also in 'Antiquities" and not in 'Wars'. But there are big differences in the two versions.
Also, "Luke" used historical stuff which are not in any of Josephus' works, which prove "Luke" had other sources.

But my main point is: If "Luke" had known about 'Antiquities', he/she would not have made several big mistakes. These errors were made by reading or browsing 'Wars', but 'Antiquities' would have prevented them, even by only browsing it.

Cordially, Bernard
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Old 03-01-2013, 10:47 AM   #43
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Dear Jake,
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Originally Posted by Bernard Muller View Post
Jake,
Of course, I do not accept many of your dating. As example,
- for Mark's gospel (70-71), see here
- for Matthew's gospel (80-90), see here
- for 1 Clement (81), see here

Where does that dating in your OP come from?

Cordially, Bernard
hum, no answer yet.

Anyway I want to show my reason for dating gMatthew in the 1st century:

gMatthew was written when the Pharisees (and teachers of the Law) had become well respected among Jews & Jewish Christians:

Mt 5:20a "For I tell you that unless your righteousness surpasses that of the Pharisees and the teachers of the law, you will certainly not enter the kingdom of heaven."

Mt 23:2-3a "Then Jesus said to the crowds and to his disciples: "The teachers of the law and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat. So you must obey them and do everything they tell you. [however “Matthew” added:] But do not do what they do, for they do not practice what they preach.”

Because the emerging Rabbis were seen as enemies by Jewish Christians (“Leave them; they are blind guides” Mt 15:14), "Matthew" made up virulent diatribes against them, such as:

Mt 23:6-7 "they love the place of honour at banquets and the most important seats in the synagogues; they love to be greeted in the marketplaces and to have men call them `Rabbi.' But you are not to be called `Rabbi,' for you have only one Master and you are all brothers."

Mt 23:13 "Woe to you, teachers of the law and Pharisees, you hypocrites! You shut the kingdom of heaven in men's faces. You yourselves do not enter, nor will you let those enter who are trying to.”

Note: Pharisees are "second fiddle" to the teachers of the law in gMark but become predominant in GMatthew, written latter.
"Pharisees"/"teachers of the law": gMark = 12/20, gMatthew = 28/19

gMatthew describes a time when Pharisees had already become righteous & respected leaders of the Jews, and also having a lot of influence on those (and therefore competition for Christian preachers).

And this is exactly how Josephus described them in 'Antiquities of the Jews' (published 93), XVIII, I, 3:
"... on account of which doctrines, they [the Pharisees] are able greatly to persuade the body of the people; and whatsoever they do about divine worship, prayers, and sacrifices, they perform them according to their direction; insomuch the cities gave great attestations to them on account to their entire virtuous conduct, both in the actions of their lives and their discourses also..."


Note: In 'Wars', written some fifteen years earlier than 'Antiquities', the corresponding section in II, VIII, 14 does not describe the Pharisees as either teachers, or leaders, or having any appeal on other Jews.

The passage from 'Antiquities' indicates also that in 93 (or years before) the time of distress of the Jews (following the destruction of Jerusalem & its temple) was over with. And this is exactly what “Matthew” alluded to in his gospel, when he was writing it:
24:21a “For then [after Jerusalem destruction] there will be great distress ...”
24:29a "Immediately after the distress of those days [advent of the kingdom]...”

This is a sure sign the gospel was written before 93.

A first century date is also justified by:
Mt 16:28 “Verily I say unto you, There be some [among Jesus' disciples] standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom.”
Mt 24:34 “Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things [which include the advent of the Kingdom (24:30-31)] be fulfilled.”

Cordially, Bernard
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Old 03-01-2013, 02:33 PM   #44
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Originally Posted by Bernard Muller View Post
Originally Posted by Bernard Muller
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Dear Bernard,

Yes, eveyone can see and judge your arguments for themselves.
Now I have a question for you. What was the Marcionite Recension of this passage? Just what is your point here re Marcion?
Jake
I also wrote next:
"However, someone writing in the name of Paul in secret had the luxury to do some rewriting in order to remove any "faux pas"."
That's my point.

Tertullian commented on this passage in AM, V, VIII. But he never said here Marcion deleted or changed anything.
Cordially, Bernard
OK, Marcion and Tertullian had the same text, so it has no relevance to the discussion. As far the rest of it, you are just making stuff up to rationalize an apparent contradiction in the text. That is OK, you are free to believe whatever you want. However, you are so far outside the realm of higher criticism that it is a poor use of my time to continue this discussion.

Best Regrds,
Jake Jones IV
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Old 03-01-2013, 06:58 PM   #45
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The writing called "Against Marcion" attributed to Tertullian and the writing called "Against Heresies" attributed to Irenaeus are forgeries.

There is is NO credible corroborative evidence at all that Marcion knew of Pauline writings when Apologetics living at the time of Marcion wrote NOTHING of the Pauline letters.

We have a most strange situation where some apologetics in the 2nd century know NOTHING of Paul, the Pauline Revealed Teachings and the Pauline letters to Churches yet Irenaeus and Tertullian knew of every Pauline letter to the Church found in the Canon.

Justin Martyr and Octavius in Minucius Felix did NOT rely on the Pauline letters at all when Justin himself was converted and Octavius did NOT use a single sentence from the Pauline letters when he converted Caecillius to the Jesus cult.

Celsus, in Origen's "Against Celsus" c 160 CE wrote NOTHING about the Pauline letters when he ARGUED against the Christian Teachings in "True Discourse".

In the very Canon, the author of Acts, who supposedly was a companion of Saul/Paul did NOT ever corroborate a single Pauline letter.

The Pauline letters are NO earlier than the mid-2nd century.

Not one writing that mentioned Paul has even been found and dated to the 1st century and all writings that mention Paul and that he wrote letters to Churches are not credible, or are forgeries or manipulated.

The Ignatian letters, 1st Clement, the writings of Irenaeus and writings attributed to Tertullian are either forgeries or were manipulated.

The claim that Jesus was Equal to God as found in the Pauline letters was NOT taught in the Churches up to the mid 2nd century.
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Old 03-01-2013, 07:28 PM   #46
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Hey jakejonesiv,

Nice list.
What about the non canonical Acts of Paul?
I imagine it would fit in to the category:
PAUL KNOWN BUT EPISTLES NOT MENTIONED.
Yes.
It also occurs to me for the sake of completion that the list needs to make reference to the Correspondence of Paul and Seneca.

It would seem to fit into the category:
BOTH PAUL AND EPISTLES KNOWN
with a date in the 4th century.
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Old 03-01-2013, 09:28 PM   #47
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To Tenorikuma and Bingo the clown-O,

For a long time, I also thought "Luke" knew about Josephus' Wars and Antiquities. But little by little I had to step back from this position (knowing 'Antiquities") because I kept bumping into evidence to the contrary...
Luke and Acts are riddled with names and events that are ONLY found in Antiquities of the Jews composed c 93 CE.

The Taxing of Cyrenius is found ONLY in Antiquities of the Jews 18. See Luke 1

The death of Herod is found ONLY in Antiquities---See Acts 12.
Now, examine Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1.

The Pauline writings were composed AFTER c 93 CE.

James the brother of Jesus is found ONLY in Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1--- See Galatians1.


The authors of gLuke, Acts and the Pauline writings were AWARE of Antiquities of the Jews.
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Old 03-01-2013, 09:46 PM   #48
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:hobbyhorse::hobbyhorse::hobbyhorse:


Before the Hobby Horses entirely over run the thread, I will refer the interested reader to a couple of earlier posts:

Slandering Marcion

Marcion and Paul


Jake
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Old 03-02-2013, 07:02 AM   #49
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IMO, the connection of Paul to Saul of Tarsus is pretty much a fraud. It is mentioned nowhere but in Acts.

In Acts chapter 9, is the tale of how Saul was converted on the road to Damsacus. Many people assume that this is when Saul's name was changed to Paul. But this is incorrect. The Saul character retains his old name for four more chapters!

As late as Acts chapter 13, Saul still doesn't have his new name, Paul. Saul, Bar-Nabas, and John meet a magician named Bar-Jesus, the son of Jesus (13:6). Of course, this magician must be labeled a false prophet.

The author of Acts immediately wishes to confuse the fact the the magican was known as the Son of Jesus by changing his name to Elymas (13:8), and claiming that is what Bar-Jesus meant all along. It makes no sense and has
lead to many variants in the extant manuscripts.

Bar-Jesus/Elymas was with the proconsul Sergius Paulus. This is the first time in Acts we encounter a Paul, and it isn't Saul.

But is soon as Sergius Paul is intoduced, within two verses, Saul takes his name! "Sergius Paulus, a man of intelligence .... But Saul, also known as Paul..." Acts 13:7,9.

This is the old switcheroo. Sergius Paulus loses his name (he is merely the proconsul in 13:12), and henceforth our hero is known by his familiar name, Paul.

Now that the catholicized St. Paul, has fully been revealed by gaining his rightful name, sort of like Batman getting his first bat suit. He is now ready to battle the Magus, the arch heretic whom he calls "... son of the devil, you enemy of all that is right, full of every sort of deceit and fraud" Acts 13:10.

But there is something the author of Acts cannot hide; the new Paul is battling his evil doppleganger, his mirror image.

Paul continues in 13:10, "will you not stop twisting the straight paths of the Lord?" But wait, in Acts 9:11 it is Saul who is on Straight Street; now Elymas Bar-Jesus the Magician who is on Straight Street, and he is making it crooked.

The magician (is he son of Jesus or son of the Devil?) is struck blind for a time, just like the presumed Saul/Paul on the road to Damascus.

"Saul got up from the ground, but when he opened his eyes he could see nothing; so they led him by the hand and brought him to Damascus. For three days he was unable to see..." Acts 9:8-9. "You will be blind, and unable to see the sun for a time." Immediately a dark mist fell upon him, and he went about seeking people to lead him by the hand" Acts 13:11.

This story is the twin to Simon Peter's confrontation with a near identical Magician, the anti-Simon, Simon Magus. Acts 8:9-24. (In Acts, Peter and Paul are like the Double Mint Twins).

Who then is this son of Jesus, Elymas the magician? The closest one can find is Josephus Antiquities 20.7.2, which mentions a Jewish magician on Cyprus named "Atomos". But variants of this text give Simon as the magician's name.


Hermann Detering in "The Falsified Paul", pages 164-165 commented that when refering to a person, "Atomos" in Greek and "Paul" in Latin are equivalent.


Jake
Jake (or anyone else who knows),

Just curious. Who wrote this?

Is this Robert M. Price? Or Hermann Detering?

Or is it you?

- Bingo
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Old 03-02-2013, 07:16 AM   #50
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Originally Posted by jakejonesiv View Post
I will refer the interested reader to a couple of earlier posts ...

Marcion and Paul
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Originally Posted by jakejonesiv View Post
… Likewise, 1 Corinthians 15:3-11 is also a late interpolation that attempts to harmonize these competing traditions!
Jake,

Your posts are great – except when you call me a “Hobby Horse”.

In your opinion is there any relationship between 1 Corinthians 15:9 and Matthew 5:19?

- Bingo
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