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12-14-2005, 10:35 AM | #1 |
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Citations from the earliest Christian writings of a historical Jesus
Citations from Paul's "authentic" epistles, 1 John, 1 Peter, the Didache, Hebrews, and 1 Clement that relate or seem to relate to a historical Jesus (ie a Jesus on earth in the past) can be found at the bottom of the page here, for those interested:
http://mypeoplepc.com/members/tedrik...op20/id24.html These writings are the ones Mr. Doherty draws from in his Top 20 silences of a historical Jesus. There are, of course, plenty of other references found in other fairly early writings (various gospels), and in writings that have much Pauline thought (the pastorals), but I've not included those. In addition, I've added additional information on the page for #13 Judas the Betrayor, for why we shouldn't have a high expectation for the authors of Hebrews or 1 Clement to have mentioned Judas. ted |
12-14-2005, 12:38 PM | #2 | |
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Let's try a bit of Bible Study! Turn to Phillipians 2 everybody!
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"Wherefore God hath also highly exalted and given him a name" - after his death mind - and no mention of a resurrection - so when was Jesus made equal to God? There is in this little passage a myriad heresies and doctrinal disputes. The myth position actually explains why there are so many divergent views - because it is reinterpretations by other people of other people's stories. Btw, I thought Paul received the instructions about the Lord's Supper from the Lord - whoever that is - ie in a vision. Not exactly a reliable source of evidence! The concept of Jesus being in one of the levels of heaven, where all this is enacted, actually makes far better sense! I would also be very careful about the twelve - I think there is a direct relationship with the minor prophets. Try rereading Paul and Hebrews imagining the levels of heaven and something being worked out in the celestial spheres! Add in some philosophy and morality then extant, plus a clear passion play in the Gospels. |
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12-14-2005, 01:06 PM | #3 | |
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What level of heaven was Jesus crucified in, IYO? |
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12-14-2005, 01:33 PM | #4 | |||||||
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ted |
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12-14-2005, 06:25 PM | #5 | |
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"While most scholars since the ICC have not been so bold as to engage the "battle of the prepositions" so directly - preferring instead to say that the use of apo neither proves nor disproves our argument..." I realize you tend to accept Holding's opinion which followed but his description of what "most scholars" say on the subject clearly precludes attributing significance (ie "right word") to it. |
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12-14-2005, 06:41 PM | #6 | |
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12-14-2005, 10:08 PM | #7 |
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You are trying to use the word as support when, according to Holding, "most scholars" think it cannot be used to support either view as more likely.
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12-15-2005, 05:40 AM | #8 | |||||
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My response to you may have been unintentionally misleading: Quote:
Here's what Strong has for 'apo': Quote:
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ted |
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12-15-2005, 11:09 AM | #9 | ||
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There is really no reason for this exchange to be so tedious. According to your own reference, you overstated the significance of the use of the word. As far as I can tell, you have three options: 1) Acknowledge this fact and stop appealing to evidence you know is not considered significant by "most scholars". 2) Continue to appeal to the word's significance with an explicit reference to the limited and subjective nature of your support. 3) Ignore this fact and disingenuously continue to use it as though it supported your position. |
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12-15-2005, 06:16 PM | #10 | ||
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I just don't see the objection you have. What in the following argues for a HJ?: Quote:
Amaleq, I sincerely don't interpret "Bottom line: While most scholars since the ICC have not been so bold as to engage the "battle of the prepositions" so directly - preferring instead to say that the use of apo neither proves nor disproves our argument " as an indication that most scholars would agree that the use is insignificant. I don't know if they would find any significance or not. Maybe not regarding the HJ/MJ arguement (same as I), but maybe they would see the significance that I pointed out in my first post. I don't think I've done anything disingenuous, and am a bit baffled by your claim. Let me try to clear it up again: I didn't use apo as support for the idea that Paul got his info from Jesus second-hand, as support for the HJ concept. I do think that even though the word doesn't prove or disprove anything, as Holding's scholars suggest, there still is significance to be found by what word was used. The significance I find is that if the OTHER word had been used that would seem to be a powerful argument for a non-historical event since the implication would be that Jesus directly told Paul about the Last Supper. Is that VERY significant? I don't think so, since the event could be either HJ or visionary with the use of 'apo'. Does that help clarify? ted |
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