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Old 02-01-2013, 10:40 AM   #201
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Please supply that "strong attestation" to the martyrdom of the disciples.
Wow. I thought I was clear. I'm saying that is the perception of the avg modern day person, because it is so strongly taught as fact in the churches, and they can always pull up the early Church father writings and some external historians to support the martyrdom concept, as well as the NT writings themselves.

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It is irrational for someone to accept the basic tenets of Christianity when they live in the 20th-21st century, when we can expect that modern science and rationality should be available to them.
Not if they aren't aware of it. But you can't just ignore all of the teachings of the Church about the historical development of Christianity. You can't just point to evolution and particle physics and say " see Christianity is bunk". Those two major 'triumphs' of science are extremely lacking in evidence for coherent theories!

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And it is certainly irrational for someone who has that science and rationality pointed out to them to continue to believe and defend the basic tenets of Christianity and all its trappings.
Perhaps.
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Old 02-01-2013, 11:40 AM   #202
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That's the historicist viewpoint. Earl's claim is that the 'flesh' referred to there is only similar to earthly flesh, and is taken on in a lower heavens area. So the flesh-spirit contrast still can occur even if Jesus' flesh wasn't human flesh on earth. That's why the early epistles, Hebrews excluded, didn't mention a lot of details where they could have: The authors didn't know the name of Jesus' mother or the place where he was crucified in that lower heaven. Or many other details found in the Gospels. There was no OT source providing that(family names, John the Baptist, Pilate, Herod, Joseph of Arimetha(sp), locations - Galilee, Nazareth, Capernaum, Jordan, etc..) information in any kind of detail, so that's why they aren't mentioned.
I don't buy Doherty's argument - never have...
Too bad, mh, I'm offering it at bargain-basement prices.

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The contrast between 'flesh' and 'spirit' does not require that the gospel JC is a historical figure. All the contrast is indicating is two very different contexts in which the two Jesus figures of Hebrews can function. A context in which 'flesh' is important. That context is one of matter, it is an earthly context. It is a historical context. That context is relevant whether or not the gospel JC is flesh and blood or whether that gospel JC figure is a mythological figure. It is the context that is relevant not what specific flesh or specific story is set within that context.
Whaaa???

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Paul goes on a similar tack. There is a natural 'body' and there is a 'spiritual' body. The first Adam and the last Adam. Two Adam figure. Two Jesus figures. Which simply means that within each specific context, the 'flesh' and the 'spirit', mind and matter, there is no shape-shifting, both contexts retain their differentiation. Jesus, as a 'salvation' figure operates within both contexts. The 'flesh', the historical, and the 'spirit', the intellectual, heavenly, context.
"Two Adam figures...one a natural body and the other a spiritual." "Both contexts retain their differentiation." Then, "Jesus operates within both contexts." Please demonstrate by an analysis, including in Greek, of 1 Cor. 15:35-49, that Jesus, according to Paul here, operates within both contexts. Please demonstrate from the text that Paul is referring to Jesus with both Adams. Your flights of fancy are astounding, maryhelena. Too bad you don't follow your own advice and keep yourself anchored on terra firma.

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Yes, of course, matter and mind interact. What we think can be translated into 'flesh', into concrete reality. What we see and experience can spur our intellect on to new ideas etc. But this interaction does not, cannot, produce any shape-shifting. Matter remains 'flesh' and mind remains 'spirit'. But plenty of scope there for storytelling of gods coming down to earth and flesh being beamed heaven's way.
Gobbledygook. Or if you prefer a more neutral phrase (a preference of one of the mods), incomprehensible.

Earl Doherty
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Old 02-01-2013, 12:01 PM   #203
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"Nor was it to offer himself repeatedly" (9:25) is connected very closely to "for then he would have had to suffer repeatedly" (9:26),
Here, "to offer himself" is the equivalent of "to suffer". Of course "repeatedly" is hypothetical. And the ending of 9:26 is
"But as it is, he has appeared once for all at the end of the age to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself."
I note the appearance "once for all" refers to Jesus being temporarily outside heaven (ref 9:24, 10:25), and that's where "he put away sin by the sacrifice of himself". That happens not in heaven and cannot be the later offering of blood.

Also, Heb 7:27 is most interesting:
"He has no need, like those high priests, to offer sacrifices daily, first for his own sins and then for those of the people; he did this once for all when he offered up himself."
Here the daily sacrifices for sins by high priests is replaced by a "once and for all" offering of himself (Jesus). But what are these sacrifices? Could they be offering of blood? No, because these offerings of blood, for the author of Hebrews, do not happen daily, but yearly:
"... the high priest goes [in the inner tent, the holiest sanctuary] , and he but once a year, and not without taking blood which he offers for himself and for the errors of the people." (Heb 9:7)
So "sacrifices" (and consequently the "offering of himself") in 7:27 does not refer to blood offering(s).

As for 10:5, why do you say, if "body" is part of a quoted psalm, that does not count, as if it did not exist? Just because you do not like it, that does not mean it is not here.

As for 10:10, it does not repeat or paraphrase the psalm extract of 10:5-7. Only "will" and "body" are common. So if the author was unconfortable with the "body" of 10:5, why did he not drop it in 10:10, such as "the offering of the body of Jesus ..." to "the offering of Jesus ..."?
Instead he wrote it. That's what I would call confirmation.

Cordially, Bernard
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Old 02-01-2013, 12:15 PM   #204
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It is interesting to know that Doherty now thinks that when Jesus allegedly went to the lower heavens (to be crucified), he "offered up prayers and supplications, with loud cries and tears" (Heb 5:7): how could that be claimed if Jesus was in heaven? Who, on earth, would witness that?
Anyway Jesus then had spiritual blood (evidence: NEB faulty translation!) and spiritual flesh (and still managed to suffer and die!):
Quote:
The spiritual flesh of his visit to the lower realm was
temporary, while his spiritual body is eternal (JNGNM p. 175)
Cordially, Bernard
I don't think Doherty claims anyone on earth witnessed the prayers or the crucifixion. I think he claims the people on earth were witnesses of the MESSAGE that it occurred, since the truth was 'manifested' to them through the OT scriptures.
I did not say Doherty claimed that. And where would that be in the scriptures? the author of Hebrews did not supply any quote for "evidence".

Anyway, it's amazing that someone in a spiritual body can do these: loud cries and tears (they must be spiritual tears!), suffer and die.

Cordially, Bernard
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Old 02-01-2013, 12:18 PM   #205
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That's the historicist viewpoint. Earl's claim is that the 'flesh' referred to there is only similar to earthly flesh, and is taken on in a lower heavens area. So the flesh-spirit contrast still can occur even if Jesus' flesh wasn't human flesh on earth. That's why the early epistles, Hebrews excluded, didn't mention a lot of details where they could have: The authors didn't know the name of Jesus' mother or the place where he was crucified in that lower heaven. Or many other details found in the Gospels. There was no OT source providing that(family names, John the Baptist, Pilate, Herod, Joseph of Arimetha(sp), locations - Galilee, Nazareth, Capernaum, Jordan, etc..) information in any kind of detail, so that's why they aren't mentioned.
I don't buy Doherty's argument - never have...
Too bad, mh, I'm offering it at bargain-basement prices.

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The contrast between 'flesh' and 'spirit' does not require that the gospel JC is a historical figure. All the contrast is indicating is two very different contexts in which the two Jesus figures of Hebrews can function. A context in which 'flesh' is important. That context is one of matter, it is an earthly context. It is a historical context. That context is relevant whether or not the gospel JC is flesh and blood or whether that gospel JC figure is a mythological figure. It is the context that is relevant not what specific flesh or specific story is set within that context.
Whaaa???

Quote:
Paul goes on a similar tack. There is a natural 'body' and there is a 'spiritual' body. The first Adam and the last Adam. Two Adam figure. Two Jesus figures. Which simply means that within each specific context, the 'flesh' and the 'spirit', mind and matter, there is no shape-shifting, both contexts retain their differentiation. Jesus, as a 'salvation' figure operates within both contexts. The 'flesh', the historical, and the 'spirit', the intellectual, heavenly, context.
"Two Adam figures...one a natural body and the other a spiritual." "Both contexts retain their differentiation." Then, "Jesus operates within both contexts." Please demonstrate by an analysis, including in Greek, of 1 Cor. 15:35-49, that Jesus, according to Paul here, operates within both contexts. Please demonstrate from the text that Paul is referring to Jesus with both Adams. Your flights of fancy are astounding, maryhelena. Too bad you don't follow your own advice and keep yourself anchored on terra firma.

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Yes, of course, matter and mind interact. What we think can be translated into 'flesh', into concrete reality. What we see and experience can spur our intellect on to new ideas etc. But this interaction does not, cannot, produce any shape-shifting. Matter remains 'flesh' and mind remains 'spirit'. But plenty of scope there for storytelling of gods coming down to earth and flesh being beamed heaven's way.
Gobbledygook. Or if you prefer a more neutral phrase (a preference of one of the mods), incomprehensible.

Earl Doherty
And that's why, Earl, that your own position is taking such a beating - it's Gobbledgook to many people...

And, Earl, linguistics is not going to provide any solutions to the problems raised by the NT story. Why? Because we are dealing with a story - a story, Earl, a story.

It's a story that is not logical. It's a story that is not rational; it's a story devoid of any moral sense. Theology won't help either. Theology is hell bent on magic tricks. It's surgical precision that is needed - and that, in the case of this written material, is attained by the use of logic.

The ahistoricist/mythicist position denies a historical gospel JC. But, Earl, the NT story is not only about the gospel Jesus. It is also the story of the Jesus of the epistles. There are two Jesus figures in the NT. The Jesus of the gospels and the Jesus of the epistles. The NT story can be read that these two Jesus figures are one and the same figure. However, logic demands that they are not synonymous figures. Logic demands that matter and mind, flesh and spirit, are not assimilated. That the NT story can be read, or rather interpreted, as a shape-shifting story, speaks more about ones credulity than ones rationality.

Hebrews 5:7 and 8.4 are indicating two contexts in which a Jesus figure, a 'salvation' figure, functions. Flesh and Spirit. Matter and Mind. Earth and Heaven. History and Eternity. That, Earl, is all there is. Everything else is window dressing.

So, yes, a logical and a philosophical approach to the NT is a rational approach. Linguistics can never have the final word on questions of logic and morality.

And that position, Earl, allows for no Gobbledgook ......:wave:
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Old 02-01-2013, 01:19 PM   #206
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Originally Posted by aa
Hebrews 1
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1God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

2Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds...
The very first verses of Hebrews have DESTROYED Doherty.
Sorry, aa, I’m still alive and kicking. God spoke to previous generations through the prophets to be read in scripture. Otherwise, there would have been no “speaking in the past” beyond the lifetime of those prophets. Do you really think that is what the writer means???

In perfect parallel, God in these last days (the present) speaks to us by his Son also in scripture, namely a new reading of scripture in which the voice of the heavenly Son is perceived, examples of which are given all throughout the epistle to the Hebrews, while never offering the voice of the Son on earth.

Where do you hear the voice of the Gospel Jesus in Hebrews, aa? Can you give me even one example? (Even 5:7 offers the ‘voice’ of the Son from scripture, in case you didn’t notice.) Or does that lie outside your mandate to merely scream at those who disagree with you?

Earl Doherty
I find it very hard to follow someone when they write as if something like this is fact
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God spoke to previous generations through the prophets to be read in scripture ...

In perfect parallel, God in these last days (the present) speaks to us by his Son
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Old 02-01-2013, 01:24 PM   #207
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And, Earl, linguistics is not going to provide any solutions to the problems raised by the NT story. Why? Because we are dealing with a story - a story, Earl, a story.

It's a story that is not logical. It's a story that is not rational; it's a story devoid of any moral sense. Theology won't help either. Theology is hell bent on magic tricks. ...
Exactly!!!

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... But, Earl, the NT story is not only about the gospel Jesus. It is also the story of the Jesus of the epistles. There are two Jesus figures in the NT. The Jesus of the gospels and the Jesus of the epistles. The NT story can be read that these two Jesus figures are one and the same figure. However, logic demands that they are not synonymous figures.
Exactly!!!

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Logic demands that matter and mind, flesh and spirit, are not assimilated. That the NT story can be read, or rather interpreted, as a shape-shifting story, speaks more about ones credulity than ones rationality.
Yep!!
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Old 02-01-2013, 01:24 PM   #208
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I don't think Doherty claims anyone on earth witnessed the prayers or the crucifixion. I think he claims the people on earth were witnesses of the MESSAGE that it occurred, since the truth was 'manifested' to them through the OT scriptures.
I did not say Doherty claimed that. And where would that be in the scriptures? the author of Hebrews did not supply any quote for "evidence".
Sorry, I thought you have 2:3-4 in mind.

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Anyway, it's amazing that someone in a spiritual body can do these: loud cries and tears (they must be spiritual tears!), suffer and die.
Cordially, Bernard
I guess if you have a spiritual body that also is like us in every way, it can do everything a human body can do -- somehow..

Bernard, I've lost (or maybe never quite got) the significance of the location of the sacrifice. If you are right that some (or ALL) of it occurred before he got to heaven, can't Doherty say "Ok, but that doesn't get you anywhere closer to saying it happened on earth, because it happened in the 'lower heavens', which was still a spiritual place where beings could take on flesh and suffer and cry etc..." As such, his priesthood still all took place in the spiritual realm.
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Old 02-01-2013, 04:47 PM   #209
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To Ted:
First a correction: in Doherty's world, a body with spiritual blood and spiritual flesh is mortal. But a spiritual body is eternal.:constern01:

Probably the best evidence in Hebrews for the crucifixion on earth is
Hebrews 7:14

Added to that, and despite Doherty lame objections, there is corroborating evidence here:
Heb 2:14 Since therefore the children share in flesh and blood, he himself likewise partook of the same nature, that through death he might destroy him who has the power of death, that is, the devil,
Hbr 2:15 and deliver all those who through fear of death were subject to lifelong bondage.
Hbr 2:16 For surely it is not with angels that he is concerned but with the descendants of Abraham.
Hbr 2:17 Therefore he had to be made like his brethren in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make expiation for the sins of the people.
(From RSV)
Of course, Doherty thinks that similarity would apply between humans with physical flesh & blood and allegedly, a Jesus with spiritual flesh & blood (when below heaven). I cannot agree with that.
Doherty wrote on this forum he would have expected "identical" to express physical bodies for both human and Jesus. Well I am as human as my neighbours, but certainly not identical to them.

Another evidence is Heb 5:7
"In the days of his flesh, Jesus offered up prayers and supplications, with loud cries and tears, to him who was able to save him from death,"
"his flesh" is describing a flesh & blood physical human condition:
Ro6:19 Darby "I speak humanly on account of the weakness of your flesh."
2Co7:5 Darby "For indeed, when we came into Macedonia, our flesh had no rest ..."
Gal4:14 Darby "and my temptation, which [was] in my flesh, you did not slight nor reject with contempt; ..."
Gal6:8 Darby "For he that sows to his own flesh, shall reap corruption from the flesh ..."
Gal6:13 Darby "... but they wish you to be circumcised, that they may boast in your flesh ..."
Heb12:9 Darby "Moreover we have had the [real!] fathers of our flesh as chasteners, and we reverenced [them] ..."

And then considering:
Heb 9:24 "For Christ has entered, not into a sanctuary made with hands, a copy of the true one, but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God on our behalf."
Heb 4:14 "Since then we have a great high priest who has passed through the heavens, Jesus, the Son of God, let us hold fast our confession."
What would be the starting point, the lower heavens, that is the sublunar realm above earth, OR earth? The traditional Jewish system consists of three heavens, the lowest starting right above the earth.
And
Heb 12:26 "His voice then shook the earth; but now he has promised, "Yet once more I will shake not only the earth but also the heaven."
Anything not earth is heaven.

Cordially, Bernard
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Old 02-01-2013, 05:27 PM   #210
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Anyway, it's amazing that someone in a spiritual body can do these: loud cries and tears (they must be spiritual tears!), suffer and die.

Cordially, Bernard
Bernard:
More than amazing. What does it really mean that a spiritual body "dies".
The whole notion of "spirit," "spiritual", the "soul" has been adopted as that of an entity that never dies. In fact the concept of dying, changing, does not apply. The spirit is the opposite of the mortal, and changeable, it is death-free. And the soul was conceived in the same manner as a component that never dies.

This is what the ancient Egyptians conceived of their Gods, and of souls. It is possible that this immortality idea was originated by the Egyptians and then was applied to their Gods by the ancient Greeks. Although the filiation is impossible to trace. Souls were conceived similarly as immortal.

So introducing an idea that the soul or the spirit can "die" is mentally, an act of acrobatics.
This has been the major problem of "dualism" throughout the history of philosophy.
The problem is the interfacing. Always impossible to explain or even imagine. So what's being done is the invention of a "third" layer to act as conduit between both sides of any dualistic construction.

Here we find a good example provided by TedM who is supposing this "third" layer to solve (only in words, not in concepts) the problem of the interfacing, by endowing "lower heavens" with the necessary properties to act as "third" layer.

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Bernard, I've lost (or maybe never quite got) the significance of the location of the sacrifice. If you are right that some (or ALL) of it occurred before he got to heaven, can't Doherty say "Ok, but that doesn't get you anywhere closer to saying it happened on earth, because it happened in the 'lower heavens', which was still a spiritual place where beings could take on flesh and suffer and cry etc..." As such, his priesthood still all took place in the spiritual realm.
But, in doing so, you abandon the original contrast that led to the assumption of dualism. If you introduce a "third" layer, very soon you can introduce a "fourth" and there's no limit to the number of layers, only the fertility of your imagination.
If spirit can die, then what is spirit in the first place? Or is it a phony concept in the first place? A lot of thinkers have rejected dualism for that very reason and embraced "monism", including a lot of ancient Greeks. This is the remarkable feature of the ancient Greek minds: their extraordinary flexibility to generate a huge variety of concepts and religious expressions that would seem incomprehensible and irrational to our modern minds.

Also, Bernard, note that when the concept of "spiritual flesh" is bandied about, the direction of the "copying" has turned around: it goes now from earth (where flesh is first defined) to "heaven" (which may provide a base for the concept of "spirit", but not one for "flesh").
So the model direction is reversed. The original object, "flesh" is on earth, and its copy "spiritual flesh" is in the sky or heaven. This turns around the popular simplified image of "Platonism" for dummies, indeed.

Bernard, note finally that there has been, accidentally, a parallel discussion of Hebrews 8:4 on the "JesusMysteries" site, earlier in January.
There was an interesting exchange between Jake, Doherty, and Hermann Detering, the founder of the scholarly site "Radikalkritik" (which has revived all the scholarship of the old Dutch radical School).

I took the trouble to transcribe a digest of excerpts of that conversation. Mainly to illustrate the mental assumptions of the participants, more than to reach a conclusion (which was no more reached there than here).
It is too long to post here (2,700 words), but I added it as a comment to my Amazon review of "Neither God nor Man".

Bernard, you can find it here:
http://www.amazon.com/review/R2PSKRO...x27JSSZCBVQPM6
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