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Old 07-31-2008, 08:31 AM   #161
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The idea that this Jesus was "Christ" however is still something that needs to be shown to be valid. In my mind, it is his divinity that is in question.
Leaving aside the question of what your understanding of "divine" is, as well as whether it corresponds to what the ancients thought such an appellation connoted, can you please provide your evidence that any first century Jew, including members of the Jesus movement, ever thought that calling someone "the Christ/the Christ of God" (cf. Ps. Solomon 17) was tantamount to calling someone "god"? When Rabbi Akiva called Simen Bar Kokhba "Christ", was he asserting that Bar Kokhba was "god"? Did the Rabbis who reported the tradition of what Akiva said about Bar Kokhba think Akiva was acknowledging Bar Kokhba as "divine" or asserting his "divinity"?

Can you also tell me what, if anything, in the scholarly literature on the subject of the meaning of the title "christ" you have read? I'm trying to gain some idea of how informed you are on the matter of NT christology and Jewish Messianic expectation.

Jeffrey
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Old 07-31-2008, 09:12 AM   #162
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But then the question arises, why are Christians trying to support the idea of a merely human Jesus Christ, when that undermines their religion as certainly as a mythical Christ?
Because that is where the best evidence appears to lead?

Ben.
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Old 07-31-2008, 09:30 AM   #163
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This "historical Jesus didn't exist" business is only found here on this site, other spin-off atheist or "freethought" sites, other eccentrics and cranks (Acharya S, Freke/Gandy), and one semi-scholarly book today: Earl Doherty's. And J.P. Holding's book does a number on all of these.

Phil P
So where does Holding produce his evidence that 'Jesus of Nazareth' existed?
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Old 07-31-2008, 09:34 AM   #164
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But then the question arises, why are Christians trying to support the idea of a merely human Jesus Christ, when that undermines their religion as certainly as a mythical Christ?
Because that is where the best evidence appears to lead?

Ben.
Yes, the best evidence leads to atheism, but what is JP Holding's motive?
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Old 07-31-2008, 09:39 AM   #165
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Because that is where the best evidence appears to lead?

Ben.
Yes, the best evidence leads to atheism, but what is JP Holding's motive?
Are you saying that Holding supports a Jesus-was-merely-human perspective?

Ben.
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Old 07-31-2008, 09:51 AM   #166
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Yes, the best evidence leads to atheism, but what is JP Holding's motive?
Are you saying that Holding supports a Jesus-was-merely-human perspective?

Ben.
No, he clearly can't, if he is a take-no-prisoners evangelical Christian apologist. But has he devoted an entire book to supporting a theory of Jesus that is compatible with atheism? Why is this of any support to his belief system?

Does he think that if people decide that there was a historical Jesus, that they can be persuaded to take a giant step and believe that historical man performed miracles and rose from the grave, then ascended into the sky to sit at the right hand of God until He returns to unlease the Armageddon and throw sinners into a lake of fire or whatever other myth that Holding wants to push?
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Old 07-31-2008, 10:02 AM   #167
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Are you saying that Holding supports a Jesus-was-merely-human perspective?

Ben.
No, he clearly can't, if he is a take-no-prisoners evangelical Christian apologist. But has he devoted an entire book to supporting a theory of Jesus that is compatible with atheism?
I guess I will have to read the book to figure out what you mean here. But I frankly doubt I will, at least not soon. I am not much into apologetics.

Ben.
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Old 07-31-2008, 10:11 AM   #168
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No, he clearly can't, if he is a take-no-prisoners evangelical Christian apologist. But has he devoted an entire book to supporting a theory of Jesus that is compatible with atheism?
I guess I will have to read the book to figure out what you mean here. But I frankly doubt I will, at least not soon. I am not much into apologetics.

Ben.
Let me try this once again from a different perspective.

When the ancient apologists argued against the Ebionites, they were arguing that Jesus Christ was divine. Jesus Christ being divine happens to be compatible, however, with gnosticism and docetism. And, when they argued against the latter, they were agreeing with the former that Jesus was human.

Could it merely be that Holding is fending off just one opposing view? Sure, it is compatible with atheism to argue that Jesus was human, but as long as Holding is not saying that Jesus was only human he leaves the door open to arguing in another context that Jesus was also divine.

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Yes, the best evidence leads to atheism....
I thought the best evidence leads to agnosticism, but I am no philosopher (and an even worse theologian). So what do I know?

Ben.
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Old 07-31-2008, 10:12 AM   #169
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There is a reply to JoeWallack on Holding's site here. It is rather unpersuasive. (I have not examined the scurrilous link on Joe that Holding provides.)

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Originally Posted by Jake O'Connell
Wallack's basic point is that we can't rely on the quotations of Papias in Eusebius and Irenaus because when you don't have the original source, the source which is citing the original source might be citing it inaccurately.

The important distinction here is between direct and indirect quotations. . . .
Uh, no.

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Originally Posted by Jake O'Connell
Wallack is correct that I was mistaken to speak of a geographical proximity between Irenaus and Papias.
Nice he admits this.

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Originally Posted by Jake O'Connell
Ironically, Wallack seems to agree with my conclusion that Papias is evidence for the existence of Jesus, so apparently he doesn't think his criticisms are that strong anyway. This is rather confusing.
Ironically? Is this an indirect reference to Joe's favorite theme or just massive confusion on O'Connell's part?

Here is what Joe Wallack wrote:
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This is a long way from proof of HJ

The related problem is that since HJ is the issue there are no accepted facts of HJ available to evaluate references to HJ. Based on what Eusebius wrote most of what Papias wrote was not canonical so we have an issue of what exactly is meant by Papias being evidence for HJ. Papias may be evidence of HJ but not GJ (Gospel Jesus). My guess is this is the situation. Papias did receive stories about the HJ from historical witness (originating with Peter & James). Papias rejected Paul and never mentions him and "Mark", the original Gospel, had not yet been written.
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Old 07-31-2008, 10:16 AM   #170
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This "historical Jesus didn't exist" business is only found here on this site, other spin-off atheist or "freethought" sites, other eccentrics and cranks (Acharya S, Freke/Gandy), and one semi-scholarly book today: Earl Doherty's. And J.P. Holding's book does a number on all of these.

Phil P
Again, why would J P Holding write about about an already shattered crank theory and now claim he has shattered the pre-shattered myth?

You are just not making sense. You appear to just chatter about shatter.
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