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Old 03-03-2011, 07:05 AM   #1
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Default New Catholic Bible translation - no more virgin in Isaiah 7:14

Fresh translation

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The only potentially controversial change that has been identified so far is Isaiah 7:14, which foretells the coming of Jesus Christ and his birth to a virgin mother.

The 1970 version says ‘the virgin shall be with child, and bear a son, and shall name him Immanuel’, but the 2011 text refers to ‘the young woman’.
It explains the original Hebrew word of ‘almah’ does not necessarily signify a virgin.
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Old 03-03-2011, 09:06 AM   #2
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There is also a new evangelical translation, that retains "virgin."
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And like the bishops, who subbed out outdated words, the evangelical scholars:
  • Dumped "alien" for "foreigner" so strangers would not be confused with E.T.
  • Replaced "overweening pride" with "great ... arrogance."
  • Identifies the men crucified beside Jesus as rebels, instead of thieves.

Unlike Catholics, however, they stuck to their theological commitment to translate the Hebrew word for young woman, almah, as virgin in Isaiah 7:14. The footnote in the Catholic Bible, that Almah may, or may not mean "virgin," would be unacceptable to their evangelical readers.
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Old 03-03-2011, 09:36 AM   #3
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List of Complete Bibles [WIKI]

Stats on
Complete English Translation
New Bibles per Century



14th century = 2
15th century = 0
16th century = 7
17th century = 2
18th century = 2
19th century = 8
20th century = 53
21st century = 15 *


*nb: first decade only

Business is taking off.
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Old 03-03-2011, 10:04 AM   #4
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It explains the original Hebrew word of ‘almah’ does not necessarily signify a virgin.
"Almah" has nothing to do with sexual experience, or lack thereof. It simply relates to youthfulness, implying a full set of dental equipment, unlike scholars from long ago, who had lost their teeth two decades prior to creating imposing tomes.

The real question here, is simple: Did the original scholars who created Septuagint translate "almah" as "parthenos" (== virgin in English), or, as I believe is the case when reading any extant copy of the Greek Septuagint, were all extant documents changed on orders from Constantine, purging Septuagint in particular, of misleading terminology, and changing "young woman" to "virgin", to accommodate Matthew's use of "parthenos".
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Originally Posted by Matthew 1:23
idou h parqenoV en gastri exei kai texetai uion kai kalesousin to onoma autou emmanouhl o estin meqermhneuomenon meq hmwn o qeoV
The error, which I believe is omnipresent, particularly on this forum, is to assume that the Jewish scholars who created Septuagint, wrote a document, which conveniently supports the gospels, and which is incorporated into our oldest extant copies of the complete canon, including Isaiah 7:14: Codices Vaticanus and Sinaiticus.

1. What is the Hebrew word for "virgin"?
2. How does the text of Isaiah 7:14 from DSS read?

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Originally Posted by minasoliman
The Masoretic uses the word "almah" and the Dead Sea Scrolls also use the word "almah." According to Jews have said for centuries, the word "almah" really means "young woman," not virgin, which in Hebrew would be "bathulah". Yet the Jewish fathers who wrote the Septuagint clearly uses the Greek word for virgin, "parthenos."
I cannot accept the idea that the Jewish scholars of Alexandria, two centuries before the common era, who created the Septuagint, would have confounded "almah" with "bathulah".....

I can believe that the Christians altered the Septuagint, destroying every alternate text in the process.....

avi
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Old 03-03-2011, 11:32 PM   #5
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Originally Posted by avi View Post
I can believe that the Christians altered the Septuagint, destroying every alternatthate text in the process.....

avi
I can't believe it. The Septuagint was written, widely read and distributed in intellectual Gentile as well as Jewish circles long before Jesus was so much as a gleam in the Father's eye.

To have so completely expunged that reference in so many texts and in so many references to that text is much more difficult for me to believe than that the translators just screwed up.
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Old 03-04-2011, 06:16 AM   #6
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This seems like a rather pointless distinction to make. Whether Isaiah 7:14 says young woman or virgin has no bearing on anything Christian related, since the entire context of Isaiah 7 shows that it has nothing to do with Jesus.
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Old 03-04-2011, 07:19 AM   #7
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Almah is a term of respect and the meaning in English seems closest to maiden or damsel.

"Young woman" is totally neutral, this term could also be applied to a slut, skank, etc.
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Old 03-04-2011, 02:31 PM   #8
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Does the new translation change "virgin" in Matthew 1:22-23 (22 So all this was done that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the Lord through the prophet, saying: 23 “Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and bear a Son, and they shall call His name Immanuel,” which is translated, “God with us.” - New King James Version) ?

And in Luke 1:27 ( 27 to a virgin betrothed to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David. The virgin’s name was Mary. -New King James Version)?

Is the Catholic Bible translation the 'official' translation of the Roman Catholic faith?
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Old 03-05-2011, 09:41 AM   #9
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Originally Posted by Cege View Post
I don't know. However, Isaiah is translating a Hebrew word Almah that has a semantic range that generally covers young women in general, whether married or not. The NT uses the Greek word Parthenos which generally means an unmarried young woman, but on occasion is used of a married woman.

When translating into English the Hebrew word Almah from the OT, one might use the usual meaning in biblical Hebrew (young woman), while in translating into English the Greek translation of the OT passage in the NT one uses the usual meaning Parthenos has in Greek (virgin).

DCH
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Old 03-06-2011, 06:33 AM   #10
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Originally Posted by show_no_mercy View Post
This seems like a rather pointless distinction to make. Whether Isaiah 7:14 says young woman or virgin has no bearing on anything Christian related, since the entire context of Isaiah 7 shows that it has nothing to do with Jesus.
+1

The point of Jesus being born of a virgin also creates a problem in that the Messiah was supposed to be of the House of David, which means a direct blood descendant of that king (as I point out in another thread). If he was born of a virgin, Jesus was not of any house!
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