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Old 03-08-2004, 06:15 AM   #41
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Default Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Old ideas about Aramaic, and new

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Originally posted by judge
Check out the variation in the greek texts and we again find that we have an underlying aramaic word which can mean either of the greek variants!

Isn't that what we would expect from someone considering multiple greek variants and trying to produce a single aramaic translation? Wouldn't such a translator try to choose a word that covers all greek versions if such a word existed?
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Old 03-08-2004, 07:04 AM   #42
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Amaleq:

Exactly. Spin actually gives a very good defense of the Gk that judge has hitherto ignored. That is, basically, that it is more likely for a later translator or scribe to correct a metaphor--since metaphors are hard to understand in non-native languages--and explain it--than for a scribe to delete the explanatory material or mistranslate the word to begin with.

Aland, et al. remind that "internal" evidence--"my reading makes sense by context" has to be subordinate to the external evidence of the witnesses. A summary of the Syriac witness was given above. This has not been rebutted or even acknowledged. Furthermore, Aland, et al. note that context does have a place provided that the external evidence does not contradict it.

In the particular case cited, the context of metaphor supports it. Indeed, it is a good example of why the "more difficult" and "the shorter" reading is generally prefered.

--J.D.
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Old 03-08-2004, 07:19 AM   #43
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Default Re: Question about differeces in ancient biblical manuscripts

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Originally posted by Krusty
Great site - you guys really seem to know your stuff (well, at least enough to fool me).

Can anyone explain why this is ignored by Christians and not bothered with by you all when arguing against the bible being error free?

Thanks.
--Krusty
Well firstly, the recognition that the canon of the New Testament was a living and changing tradition for many years is only a problem for certain flavors of Xianity. The truth is Xians who embrace the doctrine of inerrancy are a tiny minority in Christendom. It's just that in the U.S. that minority is very vocal.

That being said most Xians are not terribly concerned with text critical issues and other academic disciplines related to Xianity. My father attended seminary for 3 years. I think mostly he concentrated on faith related stuff and glossed over or largely ignored whatever academic material was included in the curriculum.
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Old 03-08-2004, 07:23 AM   #44
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Indeed, as CX notes, most theology or seminary programs deal with "interpreting" texts rather than discussing the scholarship.

In a way it is understandable. How many priest/preachers know Greek, Latin, and Hebrew well enough to work through the texts?

--J.D.
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Old 03-08-2004, 09:42 AM   #45
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Best just to ignore it . . . . . . or that Junior was born twice nearly ten years apart.

--J.D.
Not familiar with this particular argument. Care to go into it for me?
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Old 03-08-2004, 09:49 AM   #46
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Default Re: Re: Question about differeces in ancient biblical manuscripts

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Originally posted by judge

If you want the original text you need to look at the Aramaic (Eastern Peshitta), which is not used for the translations done by western believers.


Is there a reason for this?

If you check out a translations done from Aramaic to english you won't find footnotes telling you one mss reads one way and another reads differently. This only happens with the greek copies

Since the Eastern Peshitta is not used, then what form of Aramaic is used?

Western scholars have spent vast ammounts of time studying the greek and are reluctant to admit they have wasted time and money studying the wrong "original" texts. Understandable really
Is there any particular reason you've found that they failed to study the Aramaic texts intensively or first?
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Old 03-08-2004, 09:50 AM   #47
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Soul Invictus:

Mt and Lk link their narratives to historical events. Unfortunately, they link them to two different historical events. Mt links it to Herod who is dead by 4 BCE. Lk links it to Quirinius which forces it to after 6 CE.

Both have their thematic reasons for writing the stories the way they did. They just never expected to be in the same book together!

--J.D.
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Old 03-08-2004, 11:06 AM   #48
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Default Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Old ideas about Aramaic, and new

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Originally posted by Amaleq13
Isn't that what we would expect from someone considering multiple greek variants and trying to produce a single aramaic translation? Wouldn't such a translator try to choose a word that covers all greek versions if such a word existed?
I don't think so.
Think about it , we have two different greek versions , two different variations,
And quite coincidentally again and again and again we have one aramaic word that has more than one meaning. What are the chances of just happening to find a word in aramaic that covers the greek variants evry time?
Sure maybe now and again it would happen just by chance, but why would it happen again and again?
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Old 03-08-2004, 11:13 AM   #49
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Default Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Old ideas about Aramaic, and new

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Originally posted by spin
The Hebrew definitely has NMLXW, but I asked you for a documented example in Syriac/Aramaic which predates the gospels.

I don't have my BDB with me, but it seems that this is the only time a word based on MLX in the Hebrew bible isn't somehow obviously related to salt.


spin
OK you have claimed that the phrase "everything will be salted (?!?!) with fire is some kind of idiom.
Can you show me anywhere at any time in all of recorded history where this idiom is ever used by any one at all?

Just one instance that is all I am asking for.
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Old 03-08-2004, 11:21 AM   #50
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Default Re: Re: Re: Question about differeces in ancient biblical manuscripts

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Originally posted by Soul Invictus
Is there any particular reason you've found that they failed to study the Aramaic texts intensively or first?
The tremendous irony is that even "infidels" blindly follow fundamentalist christians. Think about it , it is qute funny

When protestants rejected the authority of the Roman Church that had to have a perfevt authority to follow. So they decided that they had the perfect in testament in greek. lol

From then till now no-one (not even infidels) has dared to examine intensively whether this is supported by the data.

Fundamentalists beleive the NT was written in greek as a matter of FAITH. It is hillarious.Even infidels blindly follw them, particularly ones who have spent time and money studying the "experts".
Bruce Metzger is even worshipped by infidels.:notworthy
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